Author Topic: Hypostatic Union  (Read 800 times)

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Offline shaad

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Hypostatic Union
« on: September 14, 2017, 10:58:49 am »
Assalamualaikum guys,

"Hypostatic Union", have you guys ever heard of this term? I was reading articles on CARM.org and i came across an article in which Mr Matt was using this argument to explain why Jesus(peace be upon Him) didn't know the time of his return.Hypostatic Union simply means that Jesus had TWO natures, His "divine" one and the "human" one.I've seen that Sami Zaatari already refuted his article but I would like to ask one question.So basically i would like to quote the words of Mr Matt which he used to explain Hypostatic Union on his website...

"Hypostatic Union is the union of the two natures (Divine and human) in the person of Jesus. Jesus is God in flesh (John 1:1, 14, 10:30-33, 20:28, Phil. 2:5-8, Heb. 1:8). He is fully God and fully man (Col. 2:9), thus, He has two natures: God and man. He is not half God and half man. He is 100% God and 100% man. He never lost His divinity. He continued to exist as God when He became a man and added human nature to Himself (Phil. 2:5-11). Therefore, there is a "union in one person of a full human nature and a full divine nature."

Did you guys notice some really important things which he said about the nature of Jesus? Let me quote it again...


 "He is 100% God and 100% man"

"He NEVER lost his divinity"

"He CONTINUED to exist as God when he became a Man"

"Full human nature and full divine nature"

So my question is(using the Hypostatic Union logic of course), if Jesus never lost his "divinity", he was still "100%" God and if he still had his "Full divine nature", this means he still retained his "divine wisdom and knowledge" when he became human right? Then how on earth he didn't know the time of his return?

One his article Mr Matt says....

"Before Jesus' crucifixion and resurrection He said the Father alone knew the day and hour of His return.  It wasn't until after Jesus' crucifixion and resurrection that omniscience was attributed to Jesus."

My question is, how on earth was Jesus granted omniscience only after his crucifixion and resurrection when in His own explanation of "Hypostatic Union" he said that...

"He is 100% God and 100% Man"

"He NEVER lost his divinity"

"He CONTINUED to exist as God when he became a Man"

"Full human nature and full divine nature"

So using the Hypostatic Union logic, Isn't Jesus supposed to retain his "Omniscience" attribute?


Offline shaad

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Re: Hypostatic Union
« Reply #1 on: September 14, 2017, 11:02:53 am »
Please note that Mr Matt didn't put any emoji, it was by mistake lol...

Offline submit

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Re: Hypostatic Union
« Reply #2 on: September 15, 2017, 07:50:48 am »
maybe he meant split personalities.. the swapping switch is controlled by the Father perhaps only if the Father is a distinct figure but equal in divinity to the Word and to the Spirit??

Offline shaad

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Re: Hypostatic Union
« Reply #3 on: September 15, 2017, 11:44:19 am »
Hello dear brother Submit :),

Thanks for replying bro, Yeah the Father is indeed a dinstinct figure and i'm pretty sure this is what Mr Matt believes judging from his arguments which he uses in his debates.The problem with Hypostatic Union is that it gives rise to more questions and it can also be self contradictory sometimes.Yeah maybe you're correct about the "split personalities" issue but the problem still remains due to Mr Matt's own explanation of Hypostatic Union....let me quote something from Mr Matt's explanation again...

"He is fully God and fully man (Col. 2:9), thus, He has two natures: God and man. He is not half God and half man. He is 100% God and 100% man. He NEVER lost His divinity"

"He continued to exist as God when He became a man and ADDED human nature to Himself (Phil. 2:5-11)"

"Therefore, there is a "UNION in one person of a FULL human nature and a FULL divine nature."

So if i'm not rushing too much to a conclusion which i think is not the case, then taking Mr Matt's explanation of Hypostatic Union into context, we can see that Jesus(peace be upon him) was supposed to have retained his "godly" knowledge and attributes right?

On top of that according to Trinitarians, Jesus did infact know about his nature as he allegedly "claimed" to be "god" and obviously i guess you do know that they try to prove that by using the BIBLE itself....so i don't think there was any "split personalities" issue with Jesus bro...

So the same question still remains....why didn't Jesus know the time of his return?

I'm not sure about the swapping switch by the way, maybe you're right but somehow i think it still contradicts Trinitarian beliefs of Jesus' knowledge about his nature and also the Hypostatic Union claim...

Thanks a lot for trying to help by the way, i really appreciate it, thank you bro