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Title: Was the book of Law corrected after Jeremiah 8:8?
Post by: Sharif on July 13, 2016, 09:55:54 PM
Salam Aleikum Brothers, I found this in a debate between christians about Jeremiah 8:8.

This is the page: http://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/33802/does-jeremiah-88-imply-that-the-scriptures-were-corrupted

somebody was talking against the idea that the scriptures were altered according to Jeremiah 8:8, he said:

First, some background information. Jeremiah was prophesying during the reign of Josiah, whose father was Amon and whose grandfather was Manasseh. As it says in chapter 1 of the book of Jeremiah: "The words of Jeremiah, the son of Hilkiah, one of the priests who were in Anathoth in the land of Benjamin, to whom the word of the Lord came in the days of Josiah the son of Amon, king of Judah, in the thirteenth year of his reign." Manasseh was so evil that even though his grandson, Josiah, purged the land of the idols, it says in 2 Kings 23, “Still the LORD did not turn from the burning of his great wrath, by which his anger was kindled against Judah, because of all the provocations with which Manasseh had provoked him. And the LORD said, “I will remove Judah also out of my sight, as I have removed Israel, and I will cast off this city that I have chosen, Jerusalem, and the house of which I said, My name shall be there.” Because of the evil of Manasseh and his son, Amon, the ark of God, which contained the book of the law, was most likely hidden during Manasseh’s reign. We at least know that the ark was not in its place in the temple until Josiah told the priests to put it there, as it says in 2 Chr. 35:3: “And he said to the Levites who taught all Israel and who were holy to the LORD, “Put the holy ark in the house that Solomon the son of David, king of Israel, built.” This is probably because Manasseh put idols in the temple, so they moved the ark away. Even though Josiah was doing good, the evil of the two previous kings had its lasting effects. This wasn't just with the scribes that Jeremiah was talking about, it was also with the prophets and priests, as Jeremiah says in chapter 5 of the book of Jeremiah: “An appalling and horrible thing has happened in the land: the prophets prophesy falsely, and the priests rule at their direction; my people love to have it so, but what will you do when the end comes?” However, the true book of the Law was always around--it was in the ark. In 2 Kings 22, the true book of the Law was found, and this was in the 18th year of Josiah’s reign. “In the eighteenth year of King Josiah, the king sent Shaphan the son of Azaliah, son of Meshullam, the secretary, to the house of the LORD…And Hilkiah the high priest said to Shaphan the secretary, “I have found the Book of the Law in the house of the LORD.” And Hilkiah gave the book to Shaphan, and he read it. And Shaphan the secretary came to the king, and reported to the king, “Your servants have emptied out the money that was found in the house and have delivered it into the hand of the workmen who have the oversight of the house of the LORD.” Then Shaphan the secretary told the king, “Hilkiah the priest has given me a book.” And Shaphan read it before the king.” This shows that while the "lying pen of the scribes" might have been doing what the prophets and priests were also doing, God still maintained His true word. In fact, when the book of the Law was read, people repented. So you see, even though people will try to claim that this reference that says, “the lying pen of the scribes…” means that the true scriptures weren’t around, 2 Kings 22 says otherwise. Jeremiah was rebuking the ones that tried to put forth corruptions, but he had the true one with him. In fact, it might have been upon seeing the true one that he realized what the contemporary scribes--probably under the influence of the last two kings--had done.

Have you refuted this?? Thans for all. Salam Aleikum brothers
Title: Re: Was the book of Law corrected after Jeremiah 8:8?
Post by: submit on July 14, 2016, 11:30:22 AM
its talking about the characteristic of Israelite scribes that love to alter the words of God. And such demeanor will always be present among the  Israelite scribes of any generations.

Would one really expect the Israelite scribes during the period of Jesus (pbuh) are the most righteous out of all scribes in their history. If they were indeed the protector of God's word,  Jesus would not need to confirm which words are of truth.
Title: Re: Was the book of Law corrected after Jeremiah 8:8?
Post by: Sharif on July 14, 2016, 03:17:17 PM
Salam Aleikum brother, I understand what you say, and thanks for all. However, I was thinking in other possibility: The person who was trying to refute Jeremiah 8:8 says that the book of the Law was corrected when the original book was discovered in 2 Kings 22. He says that the altered book was before the discovered book. He supports this with the second verse of the book of Jeremiah, which says:

1 The words of Jeremiah the son of Hilkiah, of the priests who were in Anathoth in the land of Benjamin,
2 to whom the word of the Lord came in the days of Josiah the son of Amon, king of Judah, in the thirteenth year of his reign.

However, he does not have in account the next verse, which says:

3 It came also in the days of Jehoiakim the son of Josiah, king of Judah, unto the end of the eleventh year of Zedekiah the son of Josiah, king of Judah, unto the carrying away of Jerusalem captive in the fifth month.

What indicates that the revelation to Jeremiah came from all the time of Josiah to the time of Jehohiakim, the son of Josiah. So, the book of Jeremiah is not limited to one year of the history, but many years. This means that Jeremiah 8:8 could be easily of after the discovering of the "original book of the Law". And in the text, there are many references which indicates this. For example:

The wise men are ashamed; they are dismayed and taken. Lo, they have rejected the word of the Lord: and what wisdom is in them? (Jeremiah 8:9).

The text says that they rejected the word of the Lord, and this only may ocurr if the have received that word and after they rejected it. For that, it's neccesary that the Book of the Law already had been founded in the time in which Jeremiah writted the chapter 8. Also, it's very very important to stand out that after Jeremiah writted the mentioned verse, he said that the Law already was in the hands of the priests and all the people, the book of Jeremiah says in chapter 2 (after Jeremiah 8:8):

The priests said not, ‘Where is the Lord?’ And they that handle the law knew Me not; the pastors also transgressed against Me; and the prophets prophesied by Baal, and walked after things that do not profit. (Jeremiah 2:8).

Hear, O earth: Behold, I will bring evil upon this people, even the fruit of their thoughts, because they have not hearkened unto My words nor to My law, but rejected it. (Jeremiah 6:19).

In conclusion, the very Bible says that the Book of the Law already was present in the time in which Jeremiah writted his book. So, nobody can argue that the Book of the Law was not present and that they had other Book which the called "The Law", because the Bible and God himself says that his Law was present in the time of Jeremiah.

PLEASE, PUT THIS IN AN ARTICULE ABOUT JEREMIAH 8:8, SO THAT THE PEOPLE CAN KNOW THE ANSWER TO THESE CLAIMS.