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Topics - Sharif

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Salam Aleikum Brothers, a group of Christians based in the opinion, of course, of the christians missionaries, claim that Harut and Marut are two ancient Armenian deities, worshipped by the Armenians before their conversion to Christianity. They are said to be assistants of the goddess Spandaramit. They were the special promotors of the productiveness and profitableness of the earth. Horot and Morot also appear in the Avesta as Haurvat (or Haurvatat) and Ameretat, "abundance" and "immortality". They says that this story was taken from hindues and armenian stories, which is the refutation of this? I think that the claim of taking from armenian gods is stupid, because in the time of Muhammad, those gods were not worshipped, literally, they did not exist, because Armenia had to that date, 600 years of Cristianity, which -securely- erased any trail of politheism and paganism; the claim of the Avesta (hindu scripture), I do not know, these claims were said by Clair Tisdall, and the page:

Explains why his claims resulted falses, because in his time, some discoveries had not been made, and those discoveries were fundamental against his claims.


SALAM ALEIKUM WARAHMATULAH WABARAKATUH, Hello brothers, some christians told me some called contradictions in the Qur'an, and they showed me a group of easy contradictions that I could refute, but this not; please help me: In the verse 56:14 says the people who will enter to Paradise will be a good many of those of olden times, (but [only] a few of later times) This is the verse 56:14. The problem is in the same chapter, in 56:39, where it says that (a good many of olden times) will be in Jan-nah. How is this possible? Many or Few? Please, review the text in arabic, I believe that the word translated as Many is Thullatun, and I believe it means a Group. However, research, please.


Salam Aleikum brothers, I have a new question: If God forgives, God ERASES the forgiven sins (this is what I have understood in Islam); So if every sin (even the forgiven ones) will be counted in the Day of Judgment, How is it possible if God erased it?, Other question: Why the verse 66:8 says that if somebody is sincere in repentance PERHAPS God forgives him: In Islam, is possible that God does not a sincere perdon in repentance? THANKS FOR ALL.

Salam Aleikum. Some christians claim that the Quran contradicts itself when it says that the revelation was given to the prophets in the languages of their peoples; so, if the people of Jesus spoke aramaic, the book should be in Aramaic; but (according to them) Injeel is derived from Evangelion (the greek word for Gospel) So, the book should be in greek. But think, the title of a thing does not say the language of this; for example, many stores in many places of the world use the english to write the name of their stores. Now, in aramaic there is a word, this is: awon-Galee-Yoon; this word means: " He reveals". This is a correct name: "The revelation of HIM". Now, if the word is derived from aramaic there is not any problem; but the refutation of the christians is that the word Awon-Galee-Yoon is a simple transliteration from the greek: Evangelion. What do you opine? Is there a refutation for this? Now, look A CHRISTIAN PAGE which say that Awon-Galee-Yoon is Aramaic, and means: He reveals. (Look at the footnotes, the first):

And there is an aditional thing, the first chapter is read in aramaic in this page, and they, to say: Sonof God, say: BAR-ALAH.



That the Qur'an was made by the catholics, the agustinian monks, who said that the mother of the virgin had also a miraculous conception, they say that the Qiran was given to Muhammad for he was from the Quraish, and they also say that Muhammad studied the works of St. Agustine through Waraqqa and Jadiyya, who according to them was a devote of the Catholicism and was intercepted to say to Muhammad all the Christianity, that articule also say that the monks expanded the idea of a new prophet and that was the reason for which several peoples coverte, and to finish they also say that Muhammad saw, in Hira, to Satan, because he hold Muhammad very strong, and that (according to them) are demons and no the Angel Gabriel. Is there a refutation for this? THANKS AND SALAM ALEIKUM.

Salam Aleikum Brothers, Which is the refutation to somebody who says that the Prophet (Saws) did not see to Allah but Alha (which according to him it is a demon)? He says that the scientific miracles may be known by a demon who would have traveled to stars to know about Black Holes, or would have to be in the beginning and he saw the Big Bang, the expansion of universe and others things; I saw a book about this which quoted a words of Jesus in Mark 3:26-29:

But the verse 29 says that the blaspheme against the Holy Ghost will never be forgiven, and that is a pillar of actual christianity, because they say that verse defend them against the people who say that the expulsation of demons is from the Devil. So, This is double-edged sword and cannot compone a good argument. So, Do you have a good and perfect argument to refute all of this? OTHER IMPORTANT THING is that some christians say Allah is Hubal because the Quran refuses the worshipping to Al-lat, Uzza and Manat, but not to Hubal which was the greatest of the Kaaba, so (according to them) Hubal is Allah. THANKS FOR YOUR HELP.

Salam Aleikum Wa rahmatullah Brothers, I Saw in this page (No in Blog) that the parts which say: "I Swear" does not really that. But, What is the logic in a phrase which says: I do not swear by this city... that We have certainly created man into hardship. (Parts of Surah 90)? Does not it be: I swear? Because if He does not swear, so... Why does not omit: I swear? Mereover, what is the corect way to translate the letter WAW in the cases of an oath? For example in Surah 68:1, it says: Nun. By the moon and what they writte. Is the word "By" a good translation of Waw? Thanks for All, I read your page about this, but it was not clear for me, I need more information for I am translating. THANKS SALAM ALEIKUM

Salam Aleikum Brothers, BISMILLAH AR-RAHMAN AR-RAHIM: In these lasts days I found a video in youtube about the prophecy wchich Jesus made about Muhammad, and in the commentaries a christian said that, for he, was very rare that Allah in hebrew means accursed; I did not believe so, because I search that in hebrew and the answer was Qolellah, so I thought that he could remove the part "Qole" to appear that the part Llah is accursed. I forgot all of that, but today I found the word Alah like accursed in Strong 422, 423:

So, What is the refutation to this?
We have to remember that the arab and hebrew are semitic languages, and as such they are these are related.

This same thing occurs with the word Halal, which in arab means licite, but in hebrew means kill:

The same is with Hanif, which in hebrew is profane or apostate:

Why are several religious words which for the Bible are accursed, but for the Qur'an are blessed? This is the question of christians which say that Qur'an is corrputed, and that is the reason for it uses this words, Is there a refutation to this?

The same was with Haram, in arab sacred AND forbidden, and the same is in hebrew, to this word I found the two meanings in hebrew and arab: sacred and forbidden.

This is to forbidden:
and this to sacred:


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