Show Posts

This section allows you to view all posts made by this member. Note that you can only see posts made in areas you currently have access to.


Messages - Sharif

Pages: 1 [2] 3 4
16
In a site, what is in arabic, says that Jeremiah 8:8 does not refer to an alteration of the Bible. However, I cannot understand very well, because it is in arabic., Please, comebody could help me with this? Thank you so much:

https://www.linga.org/defense-articles/NzQ3Nw

17
Answering-islam is trying to refute the arguments of Islamic-awareness about the story of Sheba. They say that the Jersulamen Talmud, which is even PRE-CHRISTIAN contain references about that Talmud. So, that talmud existed in times of Muhammad (saw). SO, according to them, Muhammad borrowed it. This is the article:

http://www.answering-islam.org/Responses/Saifullah/sheba.htm

And also say that the Sheba's story is false in that article. They say too that the tractate Sopherim, which according to them is older that the Quran, contains cites of Targum Esther. But I researched, and the Tractate Sopherim is not older than Qur'an, and the best, It is a NON-CANONICAL book:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Soferim_(Talmud)

This is the unit that I have refuted. I give you thanks for this. Assalamu Aleikum brothers.

18
GENERAL TOPICS | BOARD ANNOUNCEMENTS / Re: Is Islam for all mankind?
« on: July 19, 2016, 07:52:22 PM »
Salam Aleikum, ok brothers, but I put you a example: I speak in english, and the Qur'an arrives, is the Qur'an to me if the Qur'an self says that it's messages are for the people which talks it's languages? That is my specific question.

19
GENERAL TOPICS | BOARD ANNOUNCEMENTS / Is Islam for all mankind?
« on: July 16, 2016, 08:36:04 AM »
Salam Aleikum brothers, Ali Sina published an article in which he argues that Islam is not for all mankind because the Qur'an says that God sends a messenger and a book in the language of his people, namely, that the Qur'an is written in arabic, so this book is only for the arabs because it's is in their language. It's no for another peoples because another peoples speaks in other languages, and because God only sends siomething in the language of a people, the Qur'an can't be for them. What do you think? Greetings. Salam Aleikum

20
Salam Aleikum brother, I understand what you say, and thanks for all. However, I was thinking in other possibility: The person who was trying to refute Jeremiah 8:8 says that the book of the Law was corrected when the original book was discovered in 2 Kings 22. He says that the altered book was before the discovered book. He supports this with the second verse of the book of Jeremiah, which says:

1 The words of Jeremiah the son of Hilkiah, of the priests who were in Anathoth in the land of Benjamin,
2 to whom the word of the Lord came in the days of Josiah the son of Amon, king of Judah, in the thirteenth year of his reign.

However, he does not have in account the next verse, which says:

3 It came also in the days of Jehoiakim the son of Josiah, king of Judah, unto the end of the eleventh year of Zedekiah the son of Josiah, king of Judah, unto the carrying away of Jerusalem captive in the fifth month.

What indicates that the revelation to Jeremiah came from all the time of Josiah to the time of Jehohiakim, the son of Josiah. So, the book of Jeremiah is not limited to one year of the history, but many years. This means that Jeremiah 8:8 could be easily of after the discovering of the "original book of the Law". And in the text, there are many references which indicates this. For example:

The wise men are ashamed; they are dismayed and taken. Lo, they have rejected the word of the Lord: and what wisdom is in them? (Jeremiah 8:9).

The text says that they rejected the word of the Lord, and this only may ocurr if the have received that word and after they rejected it. For that, it's neccesary that the Book of the Law already had been founded in the time in which Jeremiah writted the chapter 8. Also, it's very very important to stand out that after Jeremiah writted the mentioned verse, he said that the Law already was in the hands of the priests and all the people, the book of Jeremiah says in chapter 2 (after Jeremiah 8:8):

The priests said not, ‘Where is the Lord?’ And they that handle the law knew Me not; the pastors also transgressed against Me; and the prophets prophesied by Baal, and walked after things that do not profit. (Jeremiah 2:8).

Hear, O earth: Behold, I will bring evil upon this people, even the fruit of their thoughts, because they have not hearkened unto My words nor to My law, but rejected it. (Jeremiah 6:19).

In conclusion, the very Bible says that the Book of the Law already was present in the time in which Jeremiah writted his book. So, nobody can argue that the Book of the Law was not present and that they had other Book which the called "The Law", because the Bible and God himself says that his Law was present in the time of Jeremiah.

PLEASE, PUT THIS IN AN ARTICULE ABOUT JEREMIAH 8:8, SO THAT THE PEOPLE CAN KNOW THE ANSWER TO THESE CLAIMS.

21
Salam Aleikum Brothers, I found this in a debate between christians about Jeremiah 8:8.

This is the page: http://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/33802/does-jeremiah-88-imply-that-the-scriptures-were-corrupted

somebody was talking against the idea that the scriptures were altered according to Jeremiah 8:8, he said:

First, some background information. Jeremiah was prophesying during the reign of Josiah, whose father was Amon and whose grandfather was Manasseh. As it says in chapter 1 of the book of Jeremiah: "The words of Jeremiah, the son of Hilkiah, one of the priests who were in Anathoth in the land of Benjamin, to whom the word of the Lord came in the days of Josiah the son of Amon, king of Judah, in the thirteenth year of his reign." Manasseh was so evil that even though his grandson, Josiah, purged the land of the idols, it says in 2 Kings 23, “Still the LORD did not turn from the burning of his great wrath, by which his anger was kindled against Judah, because of all the provocations with which Manasseh had provoked him. And the LORD said, “I will remove Judah also out of my sight, as I have removed Israel, and I will cast off this city that I have chosen, Jerusalem, and the house of which I said, My name shall be there.” Because of the evil of Manasseh and his son, Amon, the ark of God, which contained the book of the law, was most likely hidden during Manasseh’s reign. We at least know that the ark was not in its place in the temple until Josiah told the priests to put it there, as it says in 2 Chr. 35:3: “And he said to the Levites who taught all Israel and who were holy to the LORD, “Put the holy ark in the house that Solomon the son of David, king of Israel, built.” This is probably because Manasseh put idols in the temple, so they moved the ark away. Even though Josiah was doing good, the evil of the two previous kings had its lasting effects. This wasn't just with the scribes that Jeremiah was talking about, it was also with the prophets and priests, as Jeremiah says in chapter 5 of the book of Jeremiah: “An appalling and horrible thing has happened in the land: the prophets prophesy falsely, and the priests rule at their direction; my people love to have it so, but what will you do when the end comes?” However, the true book of the Law was always around--it was in the ark. In 2 Kings 22, the true book of the Law was found, and this was in the 18th year of Josiah’s reign. “In the eighteenth year of King Josiah, the king sent Shaphan the son of Azaliah, son of Meshullam, the secretary, to the house of the LORD…And Hilkiah the high priest said to Shaphan the secretary, “I have found the Book of the Law in the house of the LORD.” And Hilkiah gave the book to Shaphan, and he read it. And Shaphan the secretary came to the king, and reported to the king, “Your servants have emptied out the money that was found in the house and have delivered it into the hand of the workmen who have the oversight of the house of the LORD.” Then Shaphan the secretary told the king, “Hilkiah the priest has given me a book.” And Shaphan read it before the king.” This shows that while the "lying pen of the scribes" might have been doing what the prophets and priests were also doing, God still maintained His true word. In fact, when the book of the Law was read, people repented. So you see, even though people will try to claim that this reference that says, “the lying pen of the scribes…” means that the true scriptures weren’t around, 2 Kings 22 says otherwise. Jeremiah was rebuking the ones that tried to put forth corruptions, but he had the true one with him. In fact, it might have been upon seeing the true one that he realized what the contemporary scribes--probably under the influence of the last two kings--had done.

Have you refuted this?? Thans for all. Salam Aleikum brothers

22
Many thanks for all of you brothers, I wish you the best, Jazakum Allahu khairan. Salam Aleikum

23
Assalamu Aleikum borther Adriliaz123, you are in the correct way, it's fully contradictory what that author is saying, because the Fasting is present in the Bible and in the inspired Scriptures for them; also the name Allah is in the Bible and in the mouth of Jesus (as), because Jesus talked aramaic and in aramaic God is Allah:

Dictionary: http://www.atour.com/cgi-bin/dictionary.cgi?string=God&Search_Field=Meaning

Also, the postration is very registred in all the Bible, Jesus postrated, Moses postrated, Joshua postrated; so, if they say that the postration is a bad thing so, their prophets and their scriptures become a party of pagans.

Thanks for all brothers, Jazak Allah Khairan.

24
Salam Aleikum Brother, do you believe that this is a product of Al-Wasas, because this has ocurred me many times in the last, I have not be fasting, because I have been sick; however, I have prayed to God, but it continues ocurring me, what do I do? :-[

25
MANY THANKS FOR THE ARTICLE OF ISLAMQA

26
Salam Aleikum brothers, thanks for the answer, may God pays you. Now, that theory is a new theory, because I had not listened a theory which said that the Islam comes from the Hinduism; equally, thanks for all and the rebuttal, salam aleikum.

27
Salam Aleikum, I founded an articule that I think should be refuted because in searching-islam.com I did not found any articule about this (may be I searched bad). Now, the articule says that the Islam, and specifically the Ramadan have their origin in pagan rituals which were copied by the Islam, what do you opine of this? http://www.islam-bible-prophecy.com/book/the-islamic-pagan-root.pdf

28
Salam Aleikum Brothers, thanks for your answers, so, there are miracles in the Quran which have not been refuted, and also, the egyptiant texts does not talks about the incredibles things of the Quran has, is like this? did i understand?

29
A time ago, I listened that the verse 21:30 of the Quran was borrowed from ancient pagan, in this verse the Quran talks about the Big Bang and according to wahat i have heard, this theory was present in form of Mythology many centuries before the Quran, the user mendacium remedium made this very question here, but he did not obtain a reply: http://www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php?topic=1046.0

So, I wanted to know if this is refuted, here or in another page, also I founded an important thing, a "muslim" page said that the quran scientific miracles are false, because that was before in other scriptures, who is that man? an anti-muslim; why did he say that?: http://www.hamzatzortzis.com/essays-articles/exploring-the-quran/does-the-quran-contain-scientific-miracles-a-new-approach/

Is truth what he said? The miracles that he "refuted" are the unit miracles in the Quran?, namely, are the Quran scientific miracles refuted? THANKS, SALAM ALEIKUM

30
Salam Brother Farooq, thanks for all of this, the rearcher is very interesting, fast, and wonderful, May God recompense you for all of this, thanks, really, one thousand thanks

Pages: 1 [2] 3 4