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So. As the subject describes. this will be directed towards Atheists mainly rather than Christians or Jews or so on.

Alot of the times We are bought with the question by an atheist. Where is the evidence that the Prophet SAW. Did any of the miracles shown in the authentic hadith?.

The Answer to this is in the history of hadith. the hadiths about certain miracles are mutawaatir. They have been mass-reported and have a direct chain back to the Companions of the Prophet SAW and the Qurayshis who witnessed the miracles. So this is one witness evidence that indeed, something had have to happened in the time. Its almost impossible that Bukhari Rahimahullah, or his likes could even make up a lie. Throughout the 1400 years of Islamic history, we had multitudes of Medieval scholars ready to criticize and review the chains of each hadith. Which they did, Bukhari himself had a strict filtration process for his hadith. Its well known that if there was even one defect in a hadith, he would have thrown it out. So this is a witness evidence to The Prophet SAWs miracles. And history is judged by such kind of evidence because these are the best kind of evidences we have on history. many Historians dont ask for images or Extra-terrestrial evidences of such kind of events that happened in history, they judge by the consensus of each Report of a certain historical event that what is consolidated and what can we deem true? So a shared view is very important in Historical accounts.

We have questions about certain hadiths that, even if these were true, what if it was a hallucination, or what if It was a made up lie?

This question that we are asked concerning the miracles has two implied arguments.

A.) That The Prophet SAW's Companions were hallucinating
B.) They made the Miracles up for some narrative.

So A.) We can already deduce why this argument is a bad argument, its absurd. It wasnt just one companion who saw the Prophet SAW doing such miracles, it was the whole Tribe of Quraysh and the whole group of Companions. We see in the hadith and Quran about this. For example, the Idea that The Prophet SAW was a sahir(magician) Astaghfirullah. There was a reason why they called him such, The Quraysh were trying to find any excuse and way to try and thwarp the miracles and explain them off.

The Quran explains this too in Quran 54:2 "And if they see a miracle, they turn away and say, "Passing magic."

Even in the hadith

'He said: I met a person in Mecca who is on your religion and he claims that verily it is Allah Who has sent him. I said: What do the people say about him? He said: They say that he is a poet or a Kahin or a magician'
https://sunnah.com/muslim/44/189

B.) They made up a lie to create a narrative.

Now this is very very unlikely as such a huge lie and narrative would have some reports about such and such lies because this means they lied about the whole generation of 610-630 A.Ds. Which is very unlikely. This is also a extremely absurd claim.

In history, Lies were made for benefit and gain by people. what did the Companions gain from 'lying'? This limited them to prayers, bought them on the same level as slaves of the time, and it gave them faith. There are multiple hadiths outlining how a king is no different from a slave. so there was very little benefit or gain about 'lying'.
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GENERAL TOPICS | BOARD ANNOUNCEMENTS / Re: My refutation to Apostate Prophet
« Last post by QuranSearchCom on November 03, 2019, 10:02:15 AM »
Jazaka Allah Khayr for the link, akhi Sama.  I am going to add it to the infidel's page, insha'Allah.

Take care,
Osama Abdallah
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GENERAL TOPICS | BOARD ANNOUNCEMENTS / Re: Exorcism of the Syrophoenician
« Last post by QuranSearchCom on November 03, 2019, 10:00:04 AM »
I am going to add your points above to the article, insha'Allah, dear brother Shaad.

Jazaka Allah Khayr.

Osama
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GENERAL TOPICS | BOARD ANNOUNCEMENTS / Re: Exorcism of the Syrophoenician
« Last post by QuranSearchCom on November 03, 2019, 09:59:23 AM »
As'salamu Alaikum dear brother Shaad,

Jazaka Allah Khayr, dear brother.  Great points akhi.  In the worst case (if Jesus did not lie and sin), it shows that his metaphoric and hyperbolic language is nonsensical at best on many occasions.  Trinity is built on hyperbole nonsense.  This is one example that we can't use Jesus' hyperboles to prove the false lie, trinity:

www.answering-christianity.com/trinity_crucified.htm  (ample examples and verses)

Take care,
Osama Abdallah
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GENERAL TOPICS | BOARD ANNOUNCEMENTS / Re: My refutation to Apostate Prophet
« Last post by Sama on October 31, 2019, 04:50:09 AM »
The Annihilatory Refutation of "The Apostate" Rizzwan
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=O_9VHixMOFs
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GENERAL TOPICS | BOARD ANNOUNCEMENTS / Re: Exorcism of the Syrophoenician
« Last post by shaad on October 30, 2019, 09:23:49 AM »
and he makes it clear along the conversation with the gentile lady that his Father's will is for him to help the children of israel only...so again, did he use a lie to test her or he breached his contract by making an exception where nowhere it's suggested that he was allowed to by the Father...in both cases imo it seems to be a sin... if i haven't missed anything ofc
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GENERAL TOPICS | BOARD ANNOUNCEMENTS / Re: Exorcism of the Syrophoenician
« Last post by shaad on October 30, 2019, 09:19:19 AM »
Another thing which bothers me is that nowhere it is mentioned that Jesus was allowed by the Father to make an exception considering that he's supposed to be always in submission to His will (Matthew 26:39, Matthew 26:42, Mark 14:36, John 6:38)
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GENERAL TOPICS | BOARD ANNOUNCEMENTS / Exorcism of the Syrophoenician
« Last post by shaad on October 30, 2019, 09:11:56 AM »
Brother Osama Salam, i have a question...i've been reading the story of the gentile woman of Matthew 15:21-28 this morning and i've been wondering does Jesus sins somewhere along the incident?

So the woman comes asking for help to Jesus, the latter refuses her by saying that he came only for the children of Israel and even went as far as hinting out that helping her would be like snatching the rights of the Israelites (verse 24) then ofc after further begging he agrees to help her.

I have some questions that pops up, the fact that Jesus helped her may suggest that he also came to help believing gentiles...if that's the case then does that entail that Jesus used a lie to test the woman?

Another possibility is that Jesus made an exception, then does that mean his human nature sinned by breaching his contract (verse 24)?




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Jazaka Allah Khyar, akhi.
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GENERAL TOPICS | BOARD ANNOUNCEMENTS / Re: Miracle contradictions in New Testament
« Last post by shaad on October 08, 2019, 05:28:29 AM »
Good point about the Palestinian woman...excellent one
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