Please visit The original name of GOD Almighty in Aramaic, Hebrew and Arabic was indeed "Allah".   I have provided ample proofs from Aramaic, Hebrew and Arabic sources.

The real name of GOD Almighty:

From http://www.f24.parsimony.net/forum54389/messages/8102.htm

Written by yishan jufu at 04 Sep 2001 22:51:10:

yi shan- one gets lost with queball since he goes into circles and never reads right!

How about the 101 myths of the bible? Very good and although i do not agree with all of it, it has some interesting things to share with the crosstians like queball and felico the khawaja!!

>>yi shan- All you have shown us is your ignorance and lies about something that you do not know!! al-rabb & al=kaa'in are not names o' dumb one; they are adjectives meaning "the lord/master" and "the being", respectively! So, your lies are very obvious even to your own brethren who know arabic and are honest!!!
>>Que-Lets expose Yishan with an Arabic Translation from the Hebrew Bible:
>>Thus says Yahweh who made the earth, Yahweh who formed it to establish it, “Yahweh is His name. Jer. 33:2
>>yi shan- Arabic Jer 33:2 هكذا قال الرب صانعها الرب مصورها ليثبتها يهوه اسمه.
>Que-Notice how Yishan didn't read my words correctly. he is showing the translation from the ARabic bible. I said that these translations are in regular ARabic, since Arabic doesn't use the term "allah" as a common noun for God. Yishan knows this so he attempts to divert the subject away from what I am saying. I wonder why he isn't man enough to answer my original challenges that I posted to him.
>>Que- "hadaa maa yu3linuhu arrabu saani3u al'ardi, arrabbu alldiy sawwarahaa
>>wa thabbatahaa, alkaa'inu (yhwh) ismuhu.
>>All the nations may walk in the name of their gods (elohiym); we will walk in the name of YHWH our God (Elohiynu) fore ever and ever. Micah 4:5.

>>Arabic> Mic.4:5
>>fa'inna jamiy3a al'umami tasluku bismi 'ilaahihaa, 'ammaa na7nu fanasluku bismi arrabi 'ilaahinaa (yhwh elohinu) 'ilaa 'abadi al'aabidiyna
>>yi shan- Arabic Micah 4:5 لان جميع الشعوب يسلكون كل واحد باسم الهه ونحن نسلك باسم الرب الهنا الى الدهر والابد
>Que-None of these verses that Yishan shows says that God's name is "ALLAH" they still use "allah" as a common noun for god. This is false according to the ARabic language and the Quran itself!! The Quran never uses Allah to equal "god" or "god". Allah is a name not a common noun the Quran. That is the same as saying that my name "Quennel" can be use to describe a common word for Man. False pretenses.
>>Que-This is more than sufficent enough proof to show you that alkaa'inu and arrabi are used in ARabic to refer to YHWH as a synonym. Do you see where it says "bismi Allah 'ilaahina"? or "Allah ismuhu"? No!!!
>>yi shan- We see that que has has quoted two verses Jer 33:2 and Mic 4:5; he gave transliterations of the two verses; but i went one step further and gave the arabic verses from: www.arabicbible.com
>>We see that verse Jeremiah 33:2 does mention the name "yhwh" as the name of "alrabb", here i will not argue with queBAAL at all, however, what does the verse say in English? Let us see from what que has given us above:
>>Jer 33:2 Thus says Yahweh who made the earth, Yahweh who formed it to establish it, “Yahweh is His name".
>>yi shan- The English translation says "thus says yhwh", "yhwh who formed it" and "yhwh is His name".
>>Let us see the different English translations on Jer 33:2
>>KJV: Thus saith the LORD the maker thereof, the LORD that formed it, to establish it; the LORD is his name;
>>NKJV: "Thus says the Lord who made it, the Lord who formed it to establish it (the Lord is His name):
>>ASV: Thus saith Jehovah that doeth it, Jehovah that formeth it to establish it; Jehovah is his name:
>>NASB: "Thus says the LORD who made {the earth,} the LORD who formed it to establish it, the LORD is His name,
>>TMB: "Thus saith the LORD the maker thereof, the LORD who formed it to establish it, the LORD is His name:
>>NRSV: Thus says the Lord who made the earth, the Lord who formed it to establish it—the Lord is his name:
>>RSV: "Thus says the LORD who made the earth, the LORD who formed it to establish it--the LORD is his name:
>>WEB: Thus says Yahweh who does it, Yahweh who forms it to establish it; Yahweh is his name:
>>TDT: Thus saith Jehovah the doer of it, Jehovah that formeth it to establish it, Jehovah is his name:
>>Hebrew Names Version of WEB: Thus says the LORD who does it, the LORD who forms it to establish it; the LORD is his name:
>>WBT: Thus saith the LORD the maker of this, the LORD that formed it, to establish it; the LORD [is] his name;
>>yi shan- What is the point from all of the above English translation versions, que might ask?!! It is obvious, lest one is dumb that the above translations have used two different words (actually one word and one term -Lord and YHWH!!) interchageable as if they meant the same, when in reality they do not!
>Que-Yishan says that they don't mean the same when all he has done is poste English verses and then said that they don't!! This isn't proof and he knows this hence he must resort to long post about nothing!!!!!! YAHWEH was also called Adonai which means LORD so that is why the English bibles use "THE LORD" for Yahweh. How can he expose anything when he doesn't even know about Bibleical and secular history!! amazing!!
>
>If they did mean the same, then que's arabic transliteration (and my quote) of the arabic Jer 33:2 are both wrong! For how can one say "jehova's name is 'jehovah'"?!!
>Que-Nobody is talking about Jehovah!!! This is an English rendetion, again he falls under the fallacy of equating English to Hebrew!!!! Keep me laughing.
>
>Only by a great deal of manipulations and interpolations! The correct and reasonable use would have to be: 'Thus says the Lord the maker of this, the Lord that formed it, to establish it; "yhwh" is His name'.
>
>Que-I don't disagree with Yishan however he doesn't know Hebrew at all. The Hebrew word for LORD the first one in this verse IS YAHWEH!! IF Yishan wants to see for himself he should pick up a Hebrew bible. What we will mention is that nowhere do you see Allah as the name for God.
>>The queball did mention the word "synonym" when dealing with 'yhwh' and alrabb/alkaa'inu, but unfortunately was not correct in his analysis!! Al-rabb and al-kaai'nu are not the same as "yhwh" nor do they mean it or are synonym with it!!
>Que-So says Yishan. Yahweh is also called Adonai which means LOrD and al Rabb, etc. are synonyms of Adonai. Again his lack of knowledge of history astounds me. Again nowhere do we see Allah as the name of God.
>I would like quebaal to give us the FULL English definition of "YHWH" and not just its "synonyms". Once he does that, we will deal with his claims.
>Que-I said that over and over. YAHWEH is the personal name of God. It is his covenant name forever and it has become known to mean THE LORD which equates to ADONAI in Hebrew, extra proof is shown in the Greek Old Testament as well as the prophets who called God KURIOS, THE LORD which is the Greek equivalent to ADonai, which is a Hebrew equivalent to YAHWEH. Since Yishan obviously doesn't know this we wonder where in the word does it say that God's name is Allah in the Bible.
>
>But what matters to all of us is the fact that the jews do not write the NAME of God becasue they do not want to "profane it"!
>
>Que-Again no knowledge of Biblical history. Isaiah says not to use the lords name in vain or profane it. One of the greatest insults to God's name and profaning it is calling him another name which doesn't correspond to his covenant name, hence Allah in Arabic. God explictedly says that he would punish those who would do this and follow another God's name. Kurios for example isn't the name of a Greek deity, Allah is hence Yishan falls right under the same thing that God stricly hates and forbids.
>So, where did the queBAAL get the name "yhwh" from, if not from the hebrew bible of the jews?!
>Que-Look at his contradiction first he says that the Jews call it "THE NAME" while now he says that it doesn't exist in the Hebrew bible. Well lets give mr. Yishan exactly what the Hebrew bible says:
>Deut. 6:4-Shema Yisrael Yahweh Elohenyu Yahweh echad.
>Hear oh Israel THE LORD your God is ONE LORD.
>Que-Yishan can easily go to the Hebrew bible and se that God's name is spelled Yod heh vav hei. YAHWEH!
>The jews usually replace the NAME with things like "adonai", "the lord", etc. If "the Lord" was the meaning of "yhwh", they would not even write it or mention it!!
>Que-AGain more misunderstanding since adonai is found in the writing of Isaiah Judges and other parts of the Old testament. I was just looking at this last night in the Hebrew bible!!!
>
>Try to find any devout jew who even writes "God" in its full format! They write it as "G-d", so how can the queBAAL tell us that the name YHWH is the name of God from the hebrew bible, much less the arabic one; even if he produces 100 uses of it in the arabic bible (which i doubt much!)?!
>Que-First of all there are over 6000 usages of YAHWEH, second of all note how Yishan now imploys the fallacy of strawman. The Jews doen't call God's name "YHWH" G-d. They call Elohim "G-d", lol!! Also notice how after switching from Yahweh to Elohim and confusing the two, Yishan now proceeds in saying that these obviously can't be the name of God. I never ever seen anywhere in which YAHWEH has meant a common term for "GOD" or 'god', hence evey deity would be refered to as Yahweh. This is the same hilrious argument he uses for Allah, hence if Allah was a common deity for God or god, we could say that Braham is Allah, Baal is Allah, Dagon is allah, etc.
>
> To further illustrate the deceptiveness of the queBAAL, we will quote an impartial source:
>>Names for God
>>"In the Old Testament various names for God are used. YHWH is the most celebrated of these; the Hebrews considered the name ineffable and, in reading, substituted the name Adonai [my Lord]. The ineffable name, or tetragrammaton [Gr.,=four-letter form], is of unknown origin; the reconstruction Jehovah was based on a mistake, and the form Yahweh is not now regarded as reliable. The name Jah occurring in names such as Elijah is a form of YHWH. The most common name for God in the Old Testament is Elohim, a plural form, but used as a singular when speaking of God. The name El, not connected with Elohim, is also used, especially in proper names, e.g., Elijah. The name Shaddai, used with other words and in names (e.g., Zurishaddai), appears rarely. Of these names only Adonai has a satisfactory etymology. It is generally not possible to tell from English translations of the Bible what was the exact form of the name of God in the original. In Islam, the name of God is Allah."
>>The Columbia Electronic Encyclopedia Copyright © 1994, 2000, Columbia University Press. Licensed from Columbia University Press. All rights reserved.
>Que-This sources just proves what I am saying, notice that is says that Yahwehis regarded as reliable!!! He just destroyed his entire argument!!! wow!!!
>>yi shan- Let us see Gen 2:1-4 in arabic:
>>تكوين 2
>>1 فأكملت السموات والارض وكل جندها .
>>2 وفرغ الله في اليوم السابع من عمله الذي عمل . فاستراح في اليوم السابع من جميع عمله الذي عمل .
>>3 وبارك الله اليوم السابع وقدسه . لانه فيه استراح من جميع عمله الذي عمل الله خالقا .
>>4 هذه مبادئ السموات والارض حين خلقت . يوم عمل الرب الاله الارض والسموات .
>>yi shan- One has to wonder why did the bible translators (into Arabic) use than NAME "ALLAH" for God who created everything as in Genesis 1 all the way up to Gen 2:3? There is only one Creator God and the arabic bible chose the NAME "Allah" for (elohim in Genesis 1) regardless of when was the arabic translation done, because we have seen que use the same bible with Jer 33:2 (now it looks appealing to him!!!).
>Que-Notice what Yishan fells to realize!! The ARabic Bible uses Allah as a common term for "god" or "GOD" hence Allah corresponds to Elohim. However he never shows where teh ARabic Bible says that Allah is God's name forever it uses Al RAbb as God's name forever. Hence Yishan felled to prove that Allah is God's name but a common term which totally disagrees with the Quran itself which uses Allah as a name and not a common term.LOOK:
>Allah=God, god (any diety) in ARabic Bible
>Allah=Name of God (ILAH=God, god, any diety) in the Quran
>Which one is it Yishan? IF Allah is the common term for God in the Bible thent he Quran is false!!! If Allah is only the name which the Quran shows and not a common term then the ARabic Bible is false!!!
>Que-I notice Also that Yishan didn't say anything about MY GOD MY GOD, etc:
>For example MY ALLAH MY ALLAH, doesn't equal MY GOD. IN arabic this would be Ilah not Allah. He knows that this is grammatically incorrect so he tries to ignore this.
>>yishan- As for your false claims about what jesus called God, i challenge you to show me where did jesus call God "yhwh", in hebrew from any of your gospels and do not give us your crap of "the lord" or "i am"!! Give me an explicit verse in hebrew (only) with the "yhwh" in it and we will believe your false statements!!!
>>Que-The Gospel is written in Greek not Hebrew. Jesus spoke Hebrew Aramaic and Greek, which can be proven from this example:
>>Phrases such as the following which are preserved in the Gospels in their original form are all Hebrew phrases:
>>(a) "Hossana" - Matthew 21:9 (b) "Eli, Eli, Lama Sabachthani" - Matthew 27:46 (c) "Rabbi" - John 3:2 (d) "Talitha cumi" - Mark 5:41
>>Jesus spoke Hebrew on the cross before he died and then it was latter given in Aramaic which Mark records in his gospel:
>>The question of whether Jesus spoke Hebrew or Aramaic on the cross is answerable. However, the reason for Matthew and Mark recording it differently is probably due to the way the event was spoken of in Aramaic after it happened, and due to the recipients of the Gospel. However, the whole issue is not a valid criticism of the Bible.
>>Mark 15:34 is probably the most quoted Aramaism in the New Testament, being "Eloi, Eloi, lama sabakthani." However, it is doubtful that Jesus spoke in the language that Mark records them in. The reason is simple; THE PEOPLE HEARING JESUS' WORDS THOUGH HE WAS CALLING ELIJAH (Matthew 27:47 and Mark 15:35-36). In order for the onlookers to have made this mistake, Jesus would have to have cried "Eli, Eli," not "Eloi, Eloi." Why? Because in Hebrew Eli can be either "My God" or the shortened form of Eliyahu which is Hebrew for Elijah. However, in Aramaic Eloi can be only "My God."
>>It is also worth noting that lama ("why") is the same word in both languages, and sabak is a verb which is found not only in Aramaic, but also in Mishnaic Hebrew.
>>Therefore Jesus probably spoke it in Hebrew. Why therefore is it recorded in Aramaic as well? Jesus was part of a multilingual society. He most probably SPOKE GREEK (THE COMMON LANGUAGE OF GREECE AND ROME), Aramaic (the common language of the Ancient Near East) AND HEBREW, THE SACRED TONGUE OF JUDAISM, which had been revived in the form of Mishnaic Hebrew in Second Temple times. Hebrew and Aramaic are closely related Semitic languages. That Hebrew and Aramaic terms show up in the Gospels is, therefore, not at all surprising.
>>That one Gospel writer records it in Hebrew and another in extremely similar Aramaic is no problem to Christians, nor is it a criticism of the Bible. The simple reason for the difference is probably that when one of them remembered and discussed the happening of Jesus' life, death and resurrection, this phrase may well have been repeated in their conversation as Aramaic, which would be perfectly normal. So he wrote it down as such. Secondly, Mark may have written it in Aramaic due to the fact that he was the original recipients of the Gospel.(101 Cleared Up Contradictions, Smith, Jay, Chowdhry, Alex, Jepson, Toby, Schaeffer, James; pg 33-34)
>>The fact remains that the Jews would also have had to know Greek in order to communicate to the officials as well as to interact with neighboring towns and villages. More proof that Greek was also spoken in Palestine and Jerusalem comes from the Gospels themselves:
>>"Pilate had a notice prepared and fastened to the cross. It read: JESUS OF NAZARETH, THE KING OF THE JEWS. Many of the Jews read this sign, for the place where Jesus was crucified was near the city, and the sign was written in Aramaic, LATIN and GREEK." John 19:19-20
>>Do you see the languages mentioned? Aramaic, Latin and Greek! Not just Aramaic.
>>Hence we see that Jesus did speak Hebrew however the Gospels would be written in Greek since Jesus explictedly said that he was coming for the Gentiles, Yishan's lack of history shows since any sane person knows that Greek was the official language of Palestine and the Roman empire in the first century. We find it hilarious that he says to us about Jesus saying YHWH when he and other dumb muslims believe that Jesus called God's name Allah, which he claims is uniquely Arabic!!!! lol!!! So did Jesus speak Arabic now? lol!!! But since it is historically known that Jesus was multilingual lets educate Yishan and show him just what Jesus would say if he was speaking Hebrew:
>>Shimi Yisrael Yahweh Elohim Echad Elohim Matthew 12:29.
>>yi shan- All of the above has failed to produce the required evidence of jesus calling God by the name "yhwh"!! Your fancy and lengthy quotes did not get you out of your dilemma!! Even if you claimed that jesus did, you still did not provide one shred of scriptural evidence in hebrew where the NAME "yhwh" is shown!! My lack of history?!! Come on, baal!
>Que-I already did!! Notice that Yishan discard the fact that Jesus did speak Hebrew notice that he didn't see that if Jesus was saying God's name in Hebrew that it would be Yahweh as shown from this verse
>Shimi Yisrael Yahweh Elohim Echad Elohim Matthew 12:29.
>Que-So according to Yishan Jesus never said any of this when we already shown that he did speak Hebrew Aramaic and Greek!!! Hence Yahweh in Hebrew would be Yahweh, in Greek Kurious and in Aramaic it would be MARE. Such cheap rebuttal stances only shows that Yishan wants to avoid facts which disregards what he believes in. This isnt' scholarly at all!!! So where did Jesus call God's name Allah Yishan? Nowhere!!!!
>
> Who the heck do you think you are fooling by saying the above nonsense?! Did jesus preach in greek to his disciples?! Do not lie again?! Did jesus really come for the gentiles?! If he did, then you NT is corrupted beyond belief and verses like
>Que-Again if fells to read since Jesus was multilingual and speaking more than one language doesn't prove where you come from. We can use this against Yishan and say that he isn't an ARab since he is speaking English, even though he knows arabic, just like Jesus knew Hebrew!!! Or would he now say that He is multilingual like Jesus?
>
>>Matthew 10:
>>5 These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not:
>>6 But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
>>Matthew 15:21-28
>>21 Then Jesus went thence, and departed into the coasts of Tyre and Sidon. 22 And, behold, a woman of Canaan came out of the same coasts, and cried unto him, saying, Have mercy on me, O Lord, thou Son of David; my daughter is grievously vexed with a devil. 23 But he answered her not a word. And his disciples came and besought him, saying, Send her away; for she crieth after us. 24 But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel. 25 Then came she and worshipped him, saying, Lord, help me. 26 But he answered and said, It is not meet to take the children's bread, and to cast it to dogs. 27 And she said, Truth, Lord: yet the dogs eat of the crumbs which fall from their masters' table. 28 Then Jesus answered and said unto her, O woman, great is thy faith: be it unto thee even as thou wilt. And her daughter was made whole from that very hour.

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