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John 1:1 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God was with authority (same Greek word for satan's rule [2] [3])."

Is Jesus the GOD-Man?


Dr. Edward Dalcour

VS


Osama Abdallah

Also visit:

Is Jesus Allah Almighty for creating things in the Noble Quran?  And is he better than Prophet Muhammad for being a creator?  And is there a contradiction in the Noble Quran regarding idol gods not being able to create and Jesus Christ?  See the Books that Allah Almighty gave to certain powerful Beings to enable them to possess certain Powers and to do certain Miracles, including limited Creations.

  

Other important links: [1] [2] [3]

Also:
Jesus had no Divine Will according to the New Testament. How could he be our Creator?
Jesus said he had no Divine Will.  Jesus had to seek permission from GOD before performing any Miracle.

  

Does Muhammad exist in the Bible?


Anthony Rogers

VS


Osama Abdallah

Also visit: Prophet Muhammad was mentioned in the previous Scriptures.  Also, his Prophetic Name, AHMED or AHMAD, was both mentioned in the Glorious Quran and the DEAD SEA SCROLLS.  Yes, his name was recently found in the DEAD SEA SCROLLS as the coming Servant.  See the image for yourself.

  

Is the Bible the True Word of GOD Almighty?


Louis Lionheart

VS


Osama Abdallah

What parts of the Bible and Hadiths do Muslims believe are closest to the Truth, and Why? [1] [2]

Note to Muslims:

As Muslims, we must be very careful when we comment on the previous Scriptures, because there is always a possibility that there might be Divine Revelations parts in the verses that we might be objecting to.  I know that the many of the disbelievers constantly insult and mock Islam all the time, and even lie on their own Scriptures with their "End of Times Prophecies" lies, -where they hijacked even the Bible with their bigotry, hate and lies, - but still dear brothers and sisters in Islam, we must always be very careful when we deal with previous Scriptures, because as Muslims we do believe that they do contain remnants of Divine Revelations in them.  May Allah Almighty forgive me, and forgive all sincere Muslims, for any and all mistakes and errors that we may have fell into.  Ameen.

The Gospel Christ:

So, what was the Gospel of Jesus Christ then, i.e., the Injil of Jesus Christ?  Even among Christians, this remains a mystery.  But the Didache; a Gospel which existed even before the current Bible-Gospels (or canonized Gospels), contains a great deal of teachings of Jesus Christ.  The following points are important to always keep in mind: (1)- No single Scripture, the Didache or any other Scripture, is 100% pure and accurate.  There are always forgeries and alterations.  This is the same with every single book and gospel. (2)- The Original Teachings of Christ exist in Scriptures that are in the Bible and outside the Bible.

For ample proofs, watch the debate-video above.

Prophet Muhammad thoroughly prophesied in the Bible & Old Scriptures.

See also:  The Islamic Prophecies section.

  

  

Zionist Israel will rule the earth with Mighty Evil!  (Islamic Prophecy)

The Glorious Quran declared 1,400 years ago that the Israeli Zionist machine will rule the entire earth with mighty evil and power.  They will reach "Mighty Heights" علوا كبيرا  of evil power and might on earth.  See Noble Verses 17:4-8:

  • http://www.answering-christianity.com/nuclear_doom_prophecy.htm

  • Also, Israel will be annihilated by people of non-Muslims and Muslims according to the Glorious Quran's Prophecy.
      

  • What does the Glorious Quran say about the Jews' mighty success and dominance in wealth, science, media and politics?  "a rope from Allah and a rope from people" extended to them to enable the reaching of the Mighty Heights.
      

  • The Jews' financial domination and the Stock Market  (control of the earth's wealth) are STUNNINGLY prophesied in the Glorious Quran!

  • http://www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php/topic,1515.msg5943.html#msg5943     (backup)

  • http://www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php/topic,1515.msg5950.html#msg5950     (backup)

  • http://www.answering-christianity.com/ac3.htm#prophecies

  • http://www.answering-christianity.com/convert_christians.htm

  •   

    Also, Prophet Muhammad, peace and blessings be upon him, made a stunning prophecy about the one-eyed anti-Christ who will rule the infidels and the world:

    Narrated Ibn Umar: "Once Allah's Apostle stood amongst the people, glorified and praised Allah as He deserved and then mentioned the Dajjal (anti-Christ) saying, "l warn you against him (i.e. the Dajjal) and there was no prophet but warned his nation against him. No doubt, Noah warned his nation against him but I tell you about him something of which no prophet told his nation before me. You should know that he is one-eyed, and Allah is not one-eyed."  (Translation of Sahih Bukhari, Volume 4, Book 55, Number 553)"

    Prophet Muhammad had many visions about the dajjal, and gave many signs about him.  Some of the things the Prophet said about the dajjal were literal, and some were vision-metaphors.  The most prominent one is that he will be one-eyed.  This is both literal and metaphoric.  It is literal today because the zionist anti-Christ system is indeed represented by the ONE-EYE symbol as seen in the following images.  The metaphors here are Allah Almighty not being ONE-EYED, because nothing can describe Allah Almighty.  There is "none like unto Him" (Quran, 112:4).  In other words also, the Prophet warned that this ONE-EYED SATANIC system will be a worshiped deity.  And that false deity is not Allah Almighty.  For ample more details and proofs, please visit link below.

    Was the Islamic ONE-EYE Prophecy foretold before Islam in the Bible's Zechariah 11:17?  I demonstrated using ample Biblical verses that the ONE-EYED DAJJAL (anti-Christ) was never prophesied in the Bible to be ONE-EYED, nor was this Sign ever given in the Bible to any being.

  • I also showed how Jesus Christ, from among many other verses, used this "right eye" expression.  So it was never a Sign about the dajjal before Islam.  It was no more than a general language of the Bible.
      
  • The Bible in many verses uses "right hand" and "right eye" expressions for people and for GOD Almighty.
      
  • None of these are Signs to anything.
  • For ample Noble Verses and Hadiths (Sayings of the Prophet), and proofs, please visit:

  • The ONE-EYED Dajjal's Signs and Powers according to Islam.
      

  • Also visit: 9/11 was 100% an Israeli Mossad Operation!

  • Many references of this Hadith (Saying) exist throughout our Islamic Texts.  This is one of the most popular Hadiths and Prophecies of Prophet Muhammad, peace be upon him.  And indeed, we are seeing it come to pass before our very eyes.  Please also visit:

  • The hijacked Bible.
      

  • Listen also to Jeremiah 18:1-10!
      

  • The 666 symbol is actually referring to today's neo-con Christianity and Zionism!  See the clear-cut proofs and images here.
      

  • Also see the sub-section: The Israeli 666 symbol.
      

  • Does the Bible predict the dividing of Israel?  Who are the nations that divided Israel?  And what will be their punishment?
      

  • The ONE-EYED Dajjal's Signs and Powers according to Islam.
      

  • Was the Islamic ONE-EYE Prophecy foretold before Islam in the Bible's Zechariah 11:17?
      

  • Sheikh Hamza Yusuf (Muslim convert Mark Hanson) on some of Islam's STUNNING End of Times Prophecies [1] [2] including ISIS:


      
      

  • The following debate thoroughly demonstrates that ISIS is not Islamic, and that it was made by the zionists to pave the way for the "Another 9/11":



    IS ISIS ISLAMIC?
    Osama Abdallah vs David Wood Debate
    Saturday 12/06/2014

    The Debate PowerPoints contain the written material for my presentation and rebuttals.

      

  • Also visit this website's Youtube Channel at: www.youtube.com/QuranSearchCom.

  • The Gospel Christ:

    So, what was the Gospel of Jesus Christ then, i.e., the Injil of Jesus Christ?  Even among Christians, this remains a mystery.  But the Didache; a Gospel which existed even before the current Bible-Gospels (or canonized Gospels), contains a great deal of teachings of Jesus Christ.  The following points are important to always keep in mind: (1)- No single Scripture, the Didache or any other Scripture, is 100% pure and accurate.  There are always forgeries and alterations.  This is the same with every single book and gospel. (2)- The Original Teachings of Christ exist in Scriptures that are in the Bible and outside the Bible.

    For ample proofs, watch the debate-video above.

      

    See Also:

    The "Son of God" Title in the 1 John 2:22

    Jesus is Yahweh the Son?  See how Christians got this very wrong in the NT, using Jesus' words himself!
    Also, is Islam the anti-Christ system according to 1 John 2:22?

    Anti-Christ | 1john 2:22-23 | 911 was 100% an Israeli Lie | Boston | 666| Dividing Israel

    Also visit:

  • Trinity Crucified!  100s of verses prove trinity is false.  Jesus healed others only after getting permissions from GOD Almighty.  His wishes were sometimes denied. [1] [2]
  • Note:  The (*) links below are html backups of the website's blog topic threads, in case the blog and its database are down.

      

    From: www.answering-christianity.com/convert_christians.htm:

      

    1 John 2:22-23 are discussed further down in details in this table.

  • God in the OT addresses people as "my son" and describes them as his begotten son.  Why does God use these terms with others in the time of Moses and Jesus and Abraham and other prophets, and now condemns these tittles in the Quran?  Why would God give room to misuse these terms like the Greek and Romans did?

  •   

    Son of GOD definition:

    In the Bible, "the Son" refers to the Messiah, - the Ultimate Messenger to the Jews.  Son in their time meant Servant of GOD.  Allah Almighty also explained it precisely like this in the Glorious Quran: "....servants raised to honour.  (The Noble Quran, 21:26)".  Please visit:

    www.answering-christianity.com/definition_son_of_god.htm

    This is what we will be called in Heaven, and Allah Almighty also does recognize "Son of GOD" title in the Glorious Quran, but Says that they are no more than pious "....servants raised to honour.  (The Noble Quran, 21:26)".  Nothing Divine about them except that they exist with Allah Almighty Eternally in Heaven.  But as far as Divine Authority and Power, all Divine Authority and Power belong to Allah Almighty Alone and none else.  You can visit:
      
    www.answering-christianity.com/definition_son_of_god.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/son_of_god_in_bible_and_quran_debate.ppt
    www.answering-christianity.com/son_of_god.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/son_translation.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/debate_templates.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/convert_christians.htm

  • Trinity Crucified!  100s of verses prove trinity is false.  Jesus healed others only after getting permissions from GOD Almighty.  His wishes were sometimes denied. [1] [2]
  •   

    And other great figures in the Old Testament were also called:

    1-  GOD (El) of other people.
    2-  Son of GOD.
    3-  Begotten Son of GOD.
    4-  GOD's First Born.
    5-  GOD's Heir and Heirs (for believers).
    6-  GODly name with Yahweh and El attached to the name.
    7-  King of Kings (called by Yahweh Himself in the OT).
    8-  All believers are GODs (Elohim) and Sons of GOD (Beni Elohim).
      

    Is Jesus "God's Son" or "God's Servant (SLAVE)?" [1]

    King James Version
    Acts 3:25 - Ye are the children of the prophets, and of the covenant which God made with our fathers, saying unto Abraham, And in thy seed shall all the kindreds of the earth be blessed.

    Acts 3:26 - Unto you first God, having raised up his Son Jesus, sent him to bless you, in turning away every one of you from his iniquities.

    New King James Version
    Acts 3:25 - You are the sons of the prophets, and of the covenant which God made with our fathers, saying to Abraham, 'And in your seed all the families of the earth shall be blessed.

    Acts 3:26 - To you first, God, having raised up His Servant Jesus, sent Him to bless you, in turning every one of you away from his iniquities.

    "Servant" here is slave.  Jesus was called ABD (SLAVE) in the OT [2], the
    same word used for the Jews' slaves, and all slaves in general, throughout
    the Bible [
    2].  Jesus, the abd of GOD, is also the slave of GOD in the NT.

    In Arabic also it's the same.  My name Osama Abdallah, which means
    Osama slave of Allah (GOD).  Slave is a subject of GOD.  A servant is
    independent and has a free will.  He/she can quit serving.  But a
    slave (ABD) is OWNED.
      

    I elaborated on this point in details at:

    www.answering-christianity.com/godtitle.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/questions.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/trinity_crucified.htm#king_of_kings_lie
    www.answering-christianity.com/trinity_crucified.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/jesus_called_slave_in_bible.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/son_of_god.htm

    The Servants are the Prophets of Israel.  But Jesus is "the Son" because he is the Messiah, the highest Jew and highest Jewish Prophet.

      

    Jesus was called ABD (SLAVE) of GOD:

    www.answering-christianity.com/jesus_called_slave_in_bible.htm

      

    John 1:1:

    John 1:1 answered from the Glorious Quran Includes a Scientific Miracle in the Glorious Quran.

    John 1:1
    "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God
    was with authority (same Greek word for satan's rule [ [1] [2] [3])
    ."

      

    The Word encompasses Jesus:

    From www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php/topic,2884.msg13839.html#msg13839:

    From brother Shaad:

    The Logos and Jesus are differentiated in Revelation.....

    Revelation 20:4 King James Version (KJV)

    4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the ;witness of Jesus, and for the word of God...

    Revelation 1:2

    2 who testifies to everything he saw—that is, the word of God and the 


    Jazaka Allah Khayr, dear brother Shaad.  I took the liberty to add the emphasis to your text, akhi.  Indeed, the Word of GOD Almighty ENCOMPASSES Jesuss, because he was made/created from it; exactly as Islam declares.

    Trinity is false.  I have added your addition to:

    www.answering-christianity.com/word_of_god.htm

    Osama Abdallah

      

    Messiah definition::

    www.answering-christianity.com/definition_of_maseeh_in_quran.htm

      

    The Doubting Thomas:
      
    Doubting Thomas said
    "My Lord and my God" to Jesus.  Yet, all believers were called "God", and Moses was the "God" of the Believers, Aaron and Pharaoh:

  • Moses was called "The God" (Exodus 7:1) of the Believers, Aaron and Pharaoh.  Jesus said he was greater than Moses.  Thomas, the Disciple, called Jesus "My Lord and my God" (John 20:28).  Jesus denied to be GOD Almighty.  All Believers were called "GODS and Sons of GOD" (Psalm 82:6) in the Bible.  "GOD" in the Bible also means master, leader, priest.  Therefore, the doubting Thomas' statement didn't suggest that Jesus was his Creator.  And Jesus being a "God" doesn't mean that he is GOD Almighty.  He is just another mere "God" like the rest of the believing creations and nothing more.
      

  • The Bible also says that Jesus had to be "in according to Melchizedek".  And who is Melchizedek?  According to the Bible, he was the Jews' highest priest who had "no father and no mother", and "no beginning and no end" (Genesis 14:18, Psalm 110:4, Hebrews 5:6-10, Hebrews 7:1-20).  Jesus had to be similar and inline with him; another proof that Jesus being "God" doesn't mean he is the Creator of the Universe.
      
  • The Bible called Jesus a slave (abd) of GOD throughout the Old Testament!
      
  • Jesus denied knowing when Judgment Day will come, and said I DON'T KNOW, ONLY GOD ALONE KNOWS!
  • For ample more details, visit:

    www.answering-christianity.com/godtitle.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/convert_christians.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/son_of_god.htm

  • Also, the Family of Allah أهل الله in Islam, and the Majestic "We" [1] [2] [3]
  • www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php?topic=1904.msg7673#msg7673
    www.answering-christianity.com/john20_28.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/jesus_had_no_will.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/jesus_miracles.htm (non of Jesus' Miracles were unique)
    www.answering-christianity.com/ac7.htm#links
    www.answering-christianity.com/jesus_called_slave_in_bible.htm

  • Trinity Crucified!  100s of verses prove trinity is false.  Jesus healed others only after getting permissions from GOD Almighty.  His wishes were sometimes denied. [1] [2]
  •   

    Jesus' Original Name:

    Prophet Jesus' original name was Eesa, as this is also his Islamic name.  Even in Latin, it is Iesu, and in Greek it is Iesus.  There is also a great deal of evidence that Jesus spoke and preached in Arabic.  Not only that, but Greek wasn't even that popular in Palestine.  Islam's claims are very strongly supported.  See proofs below.

      

    Did early Christians preach Prophet Muhammad in Rome?

    Did the early believers preach Prophet Muhammad in Corinth, Antioch, Rome and all other places?  Prophet Jesus, peace be upon him, was the Jews' Messiah and final Prophet.  In both the Glorious Quran and the Dead Sea Scrolls, Ahmed was prophesied to come.  Ahmed in the Quran is Prophet Muhammad's prophetic name.  Also, see below the Dead Sea Scroll image.  The New Testament too predicts the coming of three:

    1.  Elijah.
    2.  The Messiah.
    3.  The Prophet.

    John 1:19-21 and John 7:40-44.  Click on the images to expand:
      
        

  • John the Baptist calls Jesus a liar! (Matthew 11:1-6).

  •   

    So did the early believers preach the coming of Prophet Ahmed or Muhammad?  The answer is quite possible, but Muhammad would've been phase 2 for them and not phase 1.  Jesus was the early believers' immediate Prophet, not Muhammad.  And all of the details that they had were about Jesus, not Muhammad.  It is also important to know that the following seven Roman Emperors have thoroughly burned all of the early believers' writings:

    1.  Nero (54-68)
    2.  Domitian (81-96)
    3.  Marcus Aurelius (161-180)
    4.  Septimius Severus (193-211; up to a point)
    5.  Maximinius I Thrax (235-8; up to a point)
    6.  Trajanus Decius (249-251)
    7.  Valerian (253-260)

    Read all the details with references here.

    What we have today from "gospels" and "New Testament" were written 80 years to 300 years after Jesus' departure from this earth.  So, the current writings that we have are not original writings.  Also, to appease the Roman Empire's 3-headed pagan religion and practices, the pagan 3-headed trinity was invented [1] [2] [3] [4] [5].  Many lies had been fabricated after the original writings were all lost.  The Jews and Christians of Arabia, however, did have writings that predicted the coming of Prophet Muhammad.  These were some of the original texts that survived.

    From Why Jews settled in Arabia section:


    Video and text are in the linked section above.

      

    Jesus also preached in Arabic:

    See the clear proofs in the following:

  • Proofs that early Christian believers' title was MUSLIMS from the Jews' and Christians sources themselves.  Also, Greek wasn't even the first language in Palestine, nor was it even hardly spoken by the natives there.
      
  • Also, ample proofs that Jesus also spoke and preached in Arabic, and there were many early manuscripts written in Arabic that spoke about the coming of Prophet Muhammad in details.  Arabic is estimated to date back 8000 to 20000 years by non-Muslim researchers, and had always been the first language in the entire lands of the Middle East, North and Central Africa.
      
  • Prophet Muhammad in the Early Christians' writings.
      
  • Prophet Muhammad foretold, by the name, in the previous Scriptures.  We still have texts today and from the Bible itself and outside the Bible that tell about the coming of Prophet Muhammad and Islam as the Servant of GOD Almighty and the New Religion and Covenant of GOD Almighty, respectively.
      
  • Important:
      
    What is the definition of Messiah in the Quran?
    Jesus was created from the Word of GOD and filled with the Holy Spirit, according to Islam.
      
  • In the Bible, Muslims, Salamays, Mushlams, Mushlems, Mushlimana are the Believers' original title [1].  Islam came to restore the original Faith [1].
      

  •   

    Prophet "AHMAD" is found in the Dead Sea Scrolls:
      
      

    (Film in this article)

      
    Prophet Muhammad in the previous Scriptures.  Prophet Muhammad was thoroughly foretold in the Bible, and his prophetic Name, "Ahmed", was also found in the Dead Sea Scrolls, and it was mentioned precisely in the Glorious Quran for the Prophet to be foretold by this very Name, Ahmed [1] [2].

      

    Father and Son Definitions:

    Definition of Key Terms (*) (a discussion between me and a Christian):

    1-  What does "The Father" really mean in the Bible?  How is it defined in Islam? (see point #5 below)  How does the Bible really define it?

    2-  What does "Son of GOD" really mean in the Bible? 

    3-  Jesus had to match Melchizedek in Miracles and Power, according to the New Testament.  See this text-debate (*) between me and a Christian.  Jesus' Miracles and Miraculous Birth and Nature were given to him because he needed to be in according to Melchizedek.  He had to be “in according to Melchizedek” as the Bible specifically says.  See Genesis 14:18, Psalm 110:4, Hebrews 5:6-10, Hebrews 7:1-20 [2].

      

    Who is Melchizedek?

    According to the Bible, he was the Jews' highest priest who had "no father and no mother", and "no beginning and no end" (Genesis 14:18, Psalm 110:4, Hebrews 5:6-10, Hebrews 7:1-20) [2].  The Bible literally says that.  Jesus had to be similar and inline with him; another proof that Jesus being "God" doesn't mean he is the Creator of the Universe.

  • Is Jesus Allah Almighty for creating things in the Noble Quran?  And is he better than Prophet Muhammad for being a creator?  And is there a contradiction in the Noble Quran regarding idol gods not being able to create and Jesus Christ?  See the Books that Allah Almighty gave to certain powerful Beings to enable them to possess certain Powers and to do certain Miracles, including limited Creations.
      

  • Also again, see this text-debate (*) between me and a Christian.
      

  • 4-  Does the Bible say that Yahweh created Jesus Yes it does (*)

  • John 1:1
    "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God was with authority
    (same Greek word for satan's rule (*) [2] [3])."
      

  • Detailed discussion about Jesus' Will (*) with ample verses.
      

  • In Islam, there are three "Worlds" or Realms:

  • (a)-  GOD Almighty, who is not seen by anyone or anything, nor is like unto anyone or anything.

    (b)-  The World of Command, which is the invisible world of the Beings that were made by the Word and the Spirit.

    (c)-  The World of Creation, the flush and blood, dust and water physical world and Universes (plural).

    Also visit: Is the Noble Quran a Creator or Creation?

      
      
    "Father" and "Son" in Islam and the Bible:

    Christians often quote the following verses to prove that Islam is the Anti-Christ:

    1 John 2
    22  Who is a liar but he that denies that Jesus is the Christ? He is antichrist, that denieth the Father and the Son.
    23  No one who denies the Son has the Father; whoever acknowledges the Son has the Father also.

      

    5-  What does the Glorious Quran say about the “Father” and “Son” titles:

  • The Quran is against the exaggerated and inflated meanings of the words, which ultimately the polytheistic religion of trinity was born out of.
      

  • Allah Almighty Said: "And they say: "(God) Most Gracious has begotten offspring." Glory to Him! they are (but) servants raised to honour (The Noble Quran, 21:26)"
      

    From http://www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php?topic=2141.msg9505#msg9505:

      

    The Family of Allah أهل الله in Islam, and the Majestic "We":
      

    .......

    In regards to your question, there are two legitimate answers for it:
      
    1-  GOD Almighty can and does refer to Himself as WE and I.  So the plural We can and does refer to Allah Almighty Alone.
      
    2-  In Allah Almighty's Realm, there are the People of Allah.   AHLU ALLAH أهل الله (Family of Allah)).

  • Go to www.google.com  إن لله - تعالى - أهلين من الناس، قالوا: يا رسول الله من هم؟ قال: هم أهل القران، أهل الله وخاصته
      
  • The Hadith in Arabic translates as:
      
    "; أهلين from mankind.  They asked: "O Messenger of Allah, who are they?"  He said: They are the People of the Quran; the Family/People of GOD أهل الله , and they are His Special Ones خاصته.";
      

      
  • This is what we will be called in Heaven, and Allah Almighty also does recognize "Son of GOD" title in the Glorious Quran, but Says that they are no more than pious  (The Noble Quran, 21:26))".  Nothing Divine about them except that they exist with Allah Almighty Eternally in Heaven.  But as far as Divine Authority and Power, all Divine Authority and Power belong to Allah Almighty Alone and none else.  You can visit:
      
    www.answering-christianity.com/definition_son_of_god.htm (The definition of "Son of God" in Islam)
    www.answering-christianity.com/son_of_god_in_bible_and_quran_debate.ppt
    www.answering-christianity.com/son_of_god.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/son_translation.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/debate_templates.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/convert_christians.htm

  • Trinity Crucified!  100s of verses prove trinity is false.  Jesus healed others only after getting permissions from GOD Almighty.  His wishes were sometimes denied. [1] [2]
  •   

    Iblis, who later became satan, used to be from AHLU ALLAH أهل الله (Family of Allah) when he was a pious Servant.  /span> But because he and his followers disobeyed GOD Almighty, they were cursed and kicked out of the COMMUNITY OF GOD Almighty:
      
    www.answering-christianity.com/adam.htm
      
    So it is quite possible that Allah Almighty uses the WE to refer to Him and His Servants that HE spoke with directly and Commanded directly.  But even in that ca/span>se, the WE still also means Allah Almighty Alone (the Majestic We), because Allah Almighty is the
     One and Only Decision Maker, and there is none other besides Him.
      
    I hope this helps, insha'Allah.
      
    Take care,
    Osama Abdallah

      
      

  • So people did call each others “Son” and “Daughter” of “GOD”. But in all reality, they are no more than Servants of GOD raised to honor.
          

  • Here are some Bible facts regarding "FATHER" and "SON": 
      

  • Allah Almighty is the Believers' only Guardian (المولى): See Noble Verses 8:40, 22:13, 22:78/font>.
      
  • In Arabic we say ولي الأمر , which means "The Legal Guardian".  المولى is derived from the root word ولي  .ولي also means a chosen friend to Allah Almighty.
      
  • FRIENDS = SONS in the Bible and Quran (ولي , وليهما and خليلا).  We further read the following in the Bible:

    Isaiah 41:8/font> "But you, Israel, my servant, Jacob, whom I have chosen, you descendants of Abraham my friend,

    Chronicles 20:7 Our God, did you not drive out the inhabitants of this land before your people Israel and give it forever to the descendants of Abraham your friend?

    James 2:23 And the scripture was fulfilled that says, "Abraham believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness," and he was called God's friend.
      
  • So being GOD Almighty's "SON" in the Bible is equal to being GOD Almighty's "FRIEND".  Now compare this to the following from the Holy Quran:
      
    [002:257] Allah is the friend (ولي) and patron of those who believe. He brings them out of the depths of darkness into light. While those who do not believe, have the forces of evil as their friends; they lead them out of light, into the very depths of darkness. Such ones shall be the inmates of the fire. They will stay there forever.
      
    [003:122] (And remember) when the two groups among you lost heart (and almost fell out), even though Allah was their Friend and Protector (وليهما)? In Allah (alone), should the believers place their trust!
      
    [004:125] Who can be better in religion than one who submits his whole self to God, does good, and follows the way of Abraham the true in Faith? For God did take Abraham for a friend (خليلا).
      
  • So the Bible's "FATHER" & "SON" for GOD Almighty and the Believers is clearly metaphoric, and it only means that GOD Almighty:
    1-  Is the Protector.
    2-  Is the Friend.
    3-  Is the Guardian.
      
  • Also, BEGET = CHOSE.
      
  • King James Bible Psalm 2:7 I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.
      
  • Allah Almighty used اصطفاك اصطفيتك يصطفي اصطفى اصطفينا to mean to Choose a Servant in Noble Verses 27:59, 3:33, 3:42, 7:144, 22:75, 35:32, 38:47, 39:4 in the Glorious Quran.
      
  • So clearly Islam is in harmony with GOD Almighty being our:

    -  Guardian
    -  Friend
    -  Protector
    -  And the One who Chose us.
      
  • And we definitely believe that Jesus is the Messiah.
      
  • One last important point:  Nowhere in the Bible is Jesus ever called "from the Seed of GOD" or "the Seed of GOD".  We do have "Jesus is from the seed of David" (Psalm 132:10-11, Romans 1:3)But never from GOD!
      
  • GOD has no seed according to both the Bible and the Quran.
      
  • Therefore, the claim that Islam is the Anti-Christ is false.
  •  

    So, is Islam the anti-Christ system according to 1john 2:22 No it isn't.  Here are some Quran and Bible facts regarding "FATHER" and "SON" in more details:

    (a)-  Allah Almighty is the Believers' only Guardian (المولى):

  • See Noble Verses 8:40, 22:13, 22:78.  In Arabic we say ولي الأمر , which means "The Legal Guardian".  المولى is derived from the root word ولي  .ولي also means a chosen friend to Allah Almighty, as in the following point.   

  • (b)-  FRIENDS = SONS in the Bible and Quran (ولي , وليهما and خليلا):

    We further read the following in the Bible:

    Isaiah 41:8
    "But you, Israel, my servant, Jacob, whom I have chosen, you descendants of Abraham my friend,

    Chronicles 20:7
    Our God, did you not drive out the inhabitants of this land before your people Israel and give it forever to the descendants of Abraham your friend?

    James 2:23
    And the scripture was fulfilled that says, "Abraham believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness," and he was called God's friend.

    So being GOD Almighty's "SON" in the Bible is equal to being GOD Almighty's "FRIEND".  Now compare this to the following from the Holy Quran:

    [002:257] Allah is the friend (ولي) and patron of those who believe. He brings them out of the depths of darkness into light. While those who do not believe, have the forces of evil as their friends; they lead them out of light, into the very depths of darkness. Such ones shall be the inmates of the fire. They will stay there forever.

    [003:122] (And remember) when the two groups among you lost heart (and almost fell out), even though Allah was their Friend and Protector (وليهما)? In Allah (alone), should the believers place their trust!

    [004:125] Who can be better in religion than one who submits his whole self to God, does good, and follows the way of Abraham the true in Faith? For God did take Abraham for a friend (خليلا).

    So the Bible's "FATHER" & "SON" for GOD Almighty and the Believers is clearly metaphoric, and it only means that GOD Almighty:

    1-  Is the Protector.
    2-  Is the Friend.
    3-  Is the Guardian.

    Please visit the following link to further see what Words the Glorious Quran uses for these words and definitions:

    http://www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php/topic,1368.msg5203.html#msg5203     (backup)

      
    (c)-  BEGET = CHOSE:

    Regarding the following verse, and many others like it:

    King James Bible Psalm 2:7
    I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.

    Let us look at Noble Verses 27:59, 3:33, 3:42, 7:144, 22:75, 35:32, 38:47, 39:4 from the Glorious Quran:

    [027:059] Say: Praise be to God, and Peace on his servants whom He has chosen اصطفى (for his Message). (Who) is better?- God or the false gods they associate (with Him)?

    ‏27:59 قل الحمد لله وسلام على عباده الذين اصطفى ءالله خير اما يشركون

    [003:033] God did choose اصطفى Adam and Noah, the family of Abraham, and the family of 'Imran above all people,-

    ‏3:33 ان الله اصطفى ادم ونوحا وال ابراهيم وال عمران على العالمين

    [003:042] Behold! the angels said: "O Mary! God hath chosen thee اصطفاك and purified thee- chosen thee above the women of all nations.

    ‏3:42 واذ قالت الملائكة يامريم ان الله اصطفاك وطهرك واصطفاك على نساء العالمين

    [007:144] (God) said: "O Moses! I have chosen thee اصطفيتك above (other) men, by the mission I (have given thee) and the words I (have spoken to thee): take then the (revelation) which I give thee, and be of those who give thanks."

    ‏7:144 قال ياموسى اني اصطفيتك على الناس برسالاتي وبكلامي فخذ ما اتيتك وكن من الشاكرين

    [022:075] God chooses يصطفي messengers from angels and from men for God is He Who hears and sees (all things).

    ‏22:75 الله يصطفي من الملائكة رسلا ومن الناس ان الله سميع بصير

    [035:032] Then We have given the Book for inheritance to such of Our Servants as We have chosen اصطفينا: but there are among them some who wrong their own souls; some who follow a middle course; and some who are, by God's leave, foremost in good deeds; that is the highest Grace.

    ‏35:32 ثم اورثنا الكتاب الذين اصطفينا من عبادنا فمنهم ظالم لنفسه ومنهم مقتصد ومنهم سابق بالخيرات باذن الله ذلك هو الفضل الكبير

    [038:047] They were, in Our sight, truly, of the company of the Elect المصطفين and the Good.

    ‏38:47 وانهم عندنا لمن المصطفين الاخيار

    [039:004] Had God wished to take to Himself an (actual) son, He could have chosen لاصطفى whom He pleased out of those whom He doth create: but Glory be to Him! (He is above such things.) He is God, the One, the Irresistible.

    ‏39:4 لو اراد الله ان يتخذ ولدا لاصطفى مما يخلق مايشاء سبحانه هو الله الواحد القهار

    Furthermore, when Jesus was asked about when the Hour will come, he replied by saying that only GOD Almighty Knows, and that no one knows, and that Jesus himself also didn't know.  Please visit:

    http://www.answering-christianity.com/questions.htm
    http://www.answering-christianity.com/ac7.htm#links

  • Trinity Crucified!  100s of verses prove trinity is false.  Jesus healed others only after getting permissions from GOD Almighty.  His wishes were sometimes denied. [1] [2]

  •   

    Jesus spelled it out clearly that he knew NOT.  And as to calling GOD Almighty "Father", and that Islam denies that GOD Almighty is an ACTUAL FATHER to anyone, in Islam GOD Almighty is called:

    1-  Rab - Lord, Father (you are the Rab of your home for being the husband and the father).

    2-  Wali - Guardian.

    In the old Aramaic and Hebrew, GOD Almighty was called what-is-equivalent-to-Islam our Rab and Wali.  But that doesn't make GOD Almighty our actual Father.  This is exactly as Judaism metaphors such as idolatry is equivalent to spiritual adultery.  No Jew is actually married to GOD Almighty to actually commit a personal marriage-adultery against GOD Almighty!  Yet, the Jews use metaphors like these.  Islam came to straighten all of this out and to set the record straight that GOD Almighty has no son and no daughter.  Otherwise, why would GOD Almighty torture us to Hell if we were His perfect sons and daughters??  No imperfect being could be an actual son of GOD Almighty (and no being is the son or daughter of GOD Almighty, period!):

    [005:018] (Both) the Jews and the Christians say: "We are sons of God, and his beloved." Say: "Why then doth He punish you for your sins? Nay, ye are but men,- of the men he hath created: He forgiveth whom He pleaseth, and He punisheth whom He pleaseth: and to God belongeth the dominion of the heavens and the earth, and all that is between: and unto Him is the final goal (of all)"

    Again, please visit: http://www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php/topic,1368.msg5203.html#msg5203     (backup).

      

    The Logical Fallacy and Corruption of 1 John 2:22:

    (d)-  Let's thoroughly look at the logical fallacy of this verse and its corruption:

    1-  " Who is the liar"??  Or should the text say who is the one who disbelieves?

  • The text clearly suggests that the book was written by a mere individual, whose emotions caused him to make a logical fallacy in the text, hence he is not a genuine Messenger of GOD.
     

  • Furthermore, we don't see this statement anywhere else throughout the Bible!  For such a serious statement to be truly from GOD Almighty, we would expect it to at the very least exist in any or all of the four gospels.  But it exists in none, and not even in Paul's writings either.  It only exists once in this late epistle.
     

  • Furthermore, the Bible’s commentary regarding 1 John book say:

    "1 John does not tell us who its author is.  The earliest identification of him comes from the church fathers..."  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1904)

    "The letter is difficult to date with precision...."  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1905)

    For book bibliography, visit: www.answering-christianity.com/authors_gospels.htm

  •   
    2-  Also keep in mind that the 1 John book contains forgeries.  For example:

  • 1 John 5:7  "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one."  This verse was proven to be a forgery, and was removed from all of the modern Bible translations.

    Please visit: www.answering-christianity.com/1john5_7.htm

  •   

    6-  Did you know that Elohim is Allah [1, *] [2] [3].  The "im" in Hebrew is a majestic plural for GOD Almighty.  The root Word is "Eloh".  And the more original Jews such as Yemenites and others say Alohim or Alah-im.  And when you yourself pronounce it, you do naturally pronounce it with a double "l": Allah.  Jews do call Him: Allah-im.  Aramaic-speaking people also call GOD Almighty Allah.  See the following videos for Biblical references and proofs.  Also, pre-Islamic Biblical archeological findings have GOD Almighty as "Allah".  So the Original Holy Name for GOD Almighty is not Eloh.  It is Allah!  Eloh is a Hebrew dialect, which not all Hebrew speakers use anyway.  Allah had always been the Original and Universal GOD Almighty even before birth of Judaism, and the existence Hebrew.  And Hebrew is a developed language from Phoenician.  See the following links:

               
           (Click to play videos)

           http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phoenician_alphabet
           http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biblical_Hebrew

      

      

      

    My rebuttal to "60 Questions Muslims Don't Like to Be Asked! and 45 Bonus Questions to Muslims" article:

    This article is a rebuttal to Andrew's 60 questions and Robert Morey's 45 questions article.  Below you will see the several obvious deliberate lies and obvious deliberate misquotes that Andrew was exposed on, and you be the judge between us!  Also visit:

    1. Jesus is more than a Rasul (Prophet).
        
    2. Deuteronomy 4:2 clearly declares that the Bible is corrupt!  Also, which "Book" is the People of the Book?

      

      

    He wrote:

    60 Questions Muslims Don’t Like To Be Asked!
    (Asking Questions of Information Control Cults like Muslims)

    Asking Questions of Information Control Cults.

    The Islamic religion is an information control cult, like Catholics, Jehovah's Witnesses and International Churches of Christ. Information control cults usually have cute terms to describe materials that are hostile to their religion. The buzzword for Catholics is "Protestant teaching". The buzzword for Jehovah’s Witnesses is "Babylon teaching" or "apostate materials" and for ICOC, the term is "spiritual pornography". You will notice that each of the cults below make statements that are basically identical. All false religions react negatively when basic common sense questions are asked of them and Islam is no exception.

     

    My response:

    Below we will see just how much of a cult your religion is, and how free Islam really is.

     

    He wrote:

    Cult How they view questioning of their religion:
    Jehovah’s Witnesses 1983 "Avoid independent thinking...questioning the counsel that is provided by God's visible organization." (Watchtower, Jan. 15, 1983 pg. 22)

    "Have No Dealings With Apostates, ... For example, what will you do if you receive a letter or some literature, open it, and see right away that it is from an apostate? Will curiosity cause you to read it, just to see what he has to say? You may even reason: `It won't affect me; I'm too strong in the truth. And besides, if we have the truth, we have nothing to fear. The truth will stand the test.' In thinking this way, some have fed their minds upon apostate reasoning and have fallen prey to serious questioning and doubt." (Watchtower, March 15, 1986 p12)

    International Church of Christ

    (ICOC)

     "Even ‘spiritual pornography’ has found its way onto the information superhighway. Instead of building lives for God, enemies of the church and disgruntled former members are uniting to attack the Kingdom and destroy people's faith. They present their ‘facts’ and their ‘stories’ in such a way as to picture the church as an abusive, authoritative, greedy and evil cult. Of course, the danger in reading such material is that only one side is presented in personal stories of hurt, and no way exists to ever learn the other side." (Al Baird, World Sector Leader, You’ve Got Mail, kingdomnewsnet.org, May 25, 1999)

     "You know, there is a proliferation – literally, throughout the world – of not only anti-cult material – little packets, but booklets, books, videos. Preston Shepherd calls this stuff ‘spiritual pornography’…. Some people say, ‘Well, hold it. If you're strong enough – if there isn't anything wrong in this stuff, then why shouldn't I read these anti-Boston materials?’ Well, let me ask you this: you've been a Christian for a while, and prayerfully you're strong in the Lord. Why can't you just open a Playboy and just see how it goes? Let me tell you something – I've been a Christian for 17 years, I don't dare get close to one. And you shouldn't get close to that spiritual pornography, the thing that's driving you there is curiosity, that is Satan – get it out of the house." (Kip McKean, World leader, They Hated the Dreamer, August 25, 1989)

    Islam  "O ye who believe! Ask not questions about things which if made plain to you, may cause you trouble. Some people before you did ask such questions, and on that account lost their faith." (Surah 5:101-102).

     "The Holy Prophet himself forbade people to ask questions ...so do not try to probe into such things." (The Meaning of the Qur'an, Maududi, vol. III, pgs. 76-77)

     "The prophet was asked about things which he did not like, and when the questioner insisted, the Prophet got angry. (vol. 1, no. 92) The Prophet got angry and his cheeks or his face became red. (vol. 1, no. 91) "Allah has hated you...[for] asking too many questions." (vol. 2, no. 555; and vol. 3, no. 591, Bukhari's Hadith commenting on Muhammad’s reaction to hostile questioners.)

     

    My response:

    Since I am only defending Islam here, then I will respond only to your comments about Islam above.  We right off the bat see a misquote of Noble Verses 5:101-102.  Here is how they read:

    "O ye who believe! Ask not questions about things which, if made plain to you, may cause you trouble. But if ye ask about things when the Quran is being revealed, they will be made plain to you, God will forgive those: for God is Oft-Forgiving, Most Forbearing. Some people before you did ask such questions, and on that account lost their faith.  (The Noble Quran, 5:101-102)"

    The Noble Verses do not prohibit Muslims from asking questions, or many questions in general, but rather warn Muslims from questioning their faith too much by asking thorny questions, because this will open up the door for satan's temptations.

    This is further verified in the following Hadith:

    Narrated Mu'awiyah: "The Holy Prophet (peace_be_upon_him) forbade the discussion of thorny questions.  (Translation of Sunan Abu-Dawud, Knowledge (Kitab Al-Ilm), Book 25, Number 3648)"


    Andrew is a Liar!  Here is the Proof!


    Even though I hate to use these kind of titles and words in my comments and conversations, but Andrew's ridiculous and outrageous lies are irresistible!!

    Notice how Andrew cut off from the Hadiths that he provided above.  He did that on purpose to prove his lie, because the parts he took out would've clearly refuted him.   Let us see the proof:

    Narrated Abu Musa: "The Prophet was asked about things which he did not like, but when the questioners insisted, the Prophet got angry. He then said to the people, "Ask me anything you like." A man asked, "Who is my father?" The Prophet replied, "Your father is Hudhafa." Then another man got up and said, "Who is my father, O Allah's Apostle ?" He replied, "Your father is Salim, Maula (the freed slave) of Shaiba." So when 'Umar saw that (the anger) on the face of the Prophet he said, "O Allah's Apostle! We repent to Allah (Our offending you)."  (Translation of Sahih Bukhari, Knowledge, Volume 1, Book 3, Number 92)"

    Here we see Mr. liar that the Prophet peace be upon him kept the questions open by saying "Ask me anything you like."  He only go offended at one person who asked inappropriate questions. 

    More proofs from the Hadith:

    Narrated Yazid: "(the Maula of Munba'ith) The Prophet was asked regarding the case of a lost sheep. He said, "You should take it, because it is for you, or for your brother, or for the wolf." Then he was asked about a lost camel. He got angry and his face became red and he said (to the questioner), "You have nothing to do with it; it has its feet and its water container with it; it can go on drinking water and eating trees till its owner meets it." And then the Prophet was asked about a Luqata (money found by somebody). He said, "Remember and recognize its tying material and its container, and make public announcement about it for one year. If somebody comes and identifies it (then give it to him), otherwise add it to your property."  (Translation of Sahih Bukhari, Divorce, Volume 7, Book 63, Number 214)"

    Again, here we see the Prophet getting frustrated at ridiculous questions and not about questions that deal with the faith.  So, asking questions and researching is not prohibited in Islam as the liar Andrew claimed.


    It's funny how the liar calls himself "Brother Andrew" when he is a misquoter and a deceiver!

     

    He wrote:

    Islam is an information control cult!

    Although in the civilized world, Islam cannot enable their information control as they do in Muslim controlled countries, there is still significant misinformation that Muslims believe about the Bible and Christianity. As you can see from the three quotes above, Muslims are forbidden to question Islamic faith, and are expected to accept its truthfulness blindly without investigation. Muhammad understood that information was the main enemy of his newly invented religion. In many Muslim controlled nations, for example, young men are paid to learn NOTHING but the Koran to the exclusion of science and history and current world events. They are told this is all they need, but in reality they are brainwashed and basic world information is deliberately withheld from them.

     

    My response:

    As we've seen above, your information was proven to be false, and you were proven to be a misquoter and a deceiver.  Basically in other words, you've been proven to be a liar "brother Andrew".

     

    He wrote:

    Although Muslims in the civilized world will claim Islam is an open religion, the fact remains that they contradict the actions of their brethren in Muslim controlled nations. In other words, actions speak louder than words! Remember, if Islam is such an open religion, why are Christians harassed and murdered in all countries where Muslims are in control of the civil governments.

     

    My response:

    The dictatorships that the Mulims are living in are not Islamic.  Dictators like Saddam Hussien are as much Muslims as Adolf Hitler was a Christian. 

     

    He wrote:

    Muhammad, in our opinion, spoke truth when he described the first reaction people had to his new religion:

    "This [Islam] is nothing but a lie which he [Muhammad] has forged, and other have helped him do it... Fairy tales of the ancients, which he has caused to be written; and they are dictated before him morning and evening." (Surah 25:4-5)

    Even Yusuf Ali, a translator of the Koran into English makes this comment:

    "In their misguided arrogance they say, ‘We have heard such things before: they are pretty tales which have come down from ancient times: they are good for amusement, but who takes them seriously? The answer is that the Qur'an teaches spiritual knowledge of what is ordinarily hidden from men's sight, and such knowledge can only come from God to Whom alone is known the Mystery of the whole Creation.’" [3058-9]

     

    My response:

    Here is how Noble Verses 25:4-5 read:

    "But the misbelievers say: "Naught is this but a lie which he has forged, and others have helped him at it." In truth it is they who have put forward an iniquity and a falsehood. And they say: "Tales of the ancients, which he has caused to be written: and they are dictated before him morning and evening."   (The Noble Quran, 25:4-5)"

    This Noble Verse does not prove a thing about Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him being a liar.  Unlike your Bible where it contains narrations and fairy tales, the Noble Quran proved itself to contain an inner and everlasting Miracle that lasts forever.   Let's look at Islam's Miracles and Prophecies:

     

    www.answering-christianity.com/sci_quran.htm:

     

     

     

    He wrote:

    The 60 most dangerous Questions for Muslims to hear:

     


    Abu’s Answer Desk

    Abu gets mad if you ask too many questions!

    Muhammad said: "Allah has hated you for asking too many questions."

    "The Prophet then got angry and his cheeks and face became red."

    Bukhari's Hadith

     

    My response:

    The word "Abu" means "father of".   It is derived from "Ab", which means "father".  Even your pornfull bible; the book of "women's vaginas and breasts taste like wine" uses the word "Ab".

    To see detailed pornography in the bible, visit: www.answering-christianity.com/x_rated.htm

     

    He wrote:

    60 Questions to ask Muslims
    Now that you know Muslims will get mad easily by asking them too many questions they don’t want to answer, we suggest the following:

    -Pick one or two questions.
    -Be very kind in your tone.
    -Be patient for their answer.
    -Do not condescend.
    -Pray for them to see the truth.

    1. Muslims claim, that a proof the Koran was from God, is that it contains scientifically accurate information about Embryology before man discovered it for himself. However, all the information in the Koran regarding Embryology is copied from three sources, 1. A Greek doctor named Galen, who lived of 150 AD. 2. A Jewish doctor named Samuel ha-Yehudi who lived 150 AD. 3. the Greek father of medicine Hippocrates who lived 400 BC. My question is: in light of the fact that all the information contained in the Koran was already in print by these three doctors, will you retract the argument on Embryology? If not, will you supply one detail revealed in the Koran about Embryology, that was not already revealed or that was new?

     

    My response:

    The Noble Quran gives detailed explanation about Embryology.  Why don't you give us the quotes of the books that were written before Islam about Embryology so we can compare the two and see whether you're truthful or not.   You've already proven yourself to be a liar above.  So why should we trust you here?

    Here are some helpful links about Embryology and other related subjects in Islam:

    The Noble Quran on Human Embryonic Development.

    Embryology in the Noble Quran.

    The Noble Quran on the Cerebrum: Lying is generated from the person's forehead.

    The region in the brain that controls our movements - In Noble Quran and confirmed by Science.

    Sex determination and human creation in Islam.  Allah Almighty and Prophet Muhammad both claimed that the human gender is determined by the male's ejaculated semen.

    Islam's claim about the 360 joints in the human body was proven to be true!

    Scientists confirm Islam's claims about Adam was 90 feet tall.

    Evidence from the Quran that Allah Almighty created the People (Children) of Adam through Cloning.   (html backup).  Another STUNNING Scientific Claim from Islam.

    Were cloning, human-cloning, and gender alteration prophesied in Islam?

    Alteration of Creation Prophecy:

    Allah Almighty quoted satan telling Him, the Almighty, in the Glorious Quran the following:

    4:119 ولاضلنهم ولامنينهم ولامرنهم فليبتكن اذان الانعام ولامرنهم فليغيرن خلق الله ومن يتخذ الشيطان وليا من دون الله فقد خسر خسرانا مبينا

    [004:119]  and (1) will lead them astray ولاضلنهمand (2) will stir desires within them ولامنينهمand (3) will command them ولامرنهم and (4) they shall cut the ears of animals فليبتكن اذان الانعامand (5) I will command them ولامرنهم to alter the creation of God فليغيرن خلق الله ." He who taketh Satan rather than God for his patron, is ruined with palpable ruin:

    Satan in the five different commands will:

    1-  Lead astray.
    2-  Stir desires.
    3-  Will command the evil ones.
    4-  They will cut the animals' ears.
    5-  Then proceed to alter the creation of GOD Almighty.

      
    Notice the fifth "and":

    (5) and I will command them ولامرنهم  to alter the creation of God فليغيرن خلق الله ."

      

    No animal or idol worship here:

    Idol worship is of course a sin in Islam, but notice in this particular promise of satan to alter Allah Almighty's creations does not include idol worship here.  Iblis, who was mighty and powerful, became very angry from Allah Almighty for having Allah Almighty Command all Beings in the World of Command to bow to the new flesh and blood creation, Adam, peace be upon him and upon all of GOD Almighty's pious creations.  So satan (Iblis) promised Allah Almighty to have these humans, whom Allah was so proud  of, to alter Allah Almighty's creations to prove to Allah that this new flesh and blood creation of His is nothing.

    Slitting of animal ears alone do not alter the creation of Allah Almighty, nor does it alter the creation of the slit animal either.  These is no alteration in creation in just slitting ears.  Besides, humans are known to eat animals anyway.  And the Noble Verse is not talking about animal or idol worship here.  It is only talking about having the creations of Allah Almighty being altered by humans after the slitting of animals' ears.

    Satan's big battle with GOD Almighty is to cause so much evil, among them is to "cut the cattle's ears and to alter the creation of Allah" (4:119), i.e., cloning (as this is how it began today) [1]

    Transgenders also began after Dolly the sheep's cloning.  LGBT (lesbian, gay, bisexual, and transgender) are covered below in this article.  Today they're even researching making males get pregnant, or at least plant fertilized female eggs inside them and grow the fetuses into babies.

      

    Cloning began with the animals' ears:

    The alteration of Allah Almighty's creations indeed began with the cutting of the animals' ears and extracting the necessary somatic cells from them.  Dolly the sheep was the first creation to ever be cloned:

    "Dolly was a female domestic sheep, and the first mammal cloned from an adult somatic cell, using the process of nuclear transfer." (Source)

    "...but somatic cells from ear clippings will be much easier to obtain and are therefore preferable."  (Source, 2, pdf)

    Ample more quotes are below in this article.

      

    Evidence that Allah Almighty created the People of Adam through Cloning in the Glorious Quran.  (html backup).  Cloning is mentioned in multiple places in the Glorious Quran [1], and is one of the End of Times Prophecies as well.  Cloning is definitely NOT a foreign concept in the Glorious Quran.

    Please visit:

  • The Overwhelming Numerical and Scientific Miracles in the Glorious Quran.
  • The Quran's and Islam's Amazing Prophecies.
  •   

    Why does the Noble Quran, while speaking about determination of the identity of the individual, speak specifically about finger tips?  The Noble Quran recognized that finger tips (finger prints) are unique!

    The blood circulation and the production of milk.

    Thinking with the heart besides the brain in the Noble Quran was proven by Science.

     

    He wrote:

    2-  Muslims claim, that a proof that the Koran was from God is that it contains scientifically accurate information about Embryology, yet in 86:6-7 the Koran says, "man was created from ejected liquid- Proceeding from between the backbone and the ribs". This echoes the scientific error of Hippocrates who believed semen originates, from the brain down the spinal chord, before passing through the kidneys and finally out of the body. (Hippocratic Writings, Penguin Classics, 1983, p. 317) My question is: do you reject modern science and believe the Koran when it says sperm originates from the mid-gut section of a man's body.

     

    My response:

    Again, care to give us the quotes so we can discuss them and see whether you're truthful or not?  Again, visit the following links:

    The Noble Quran on Human Embryonic Development.

    Embryology in the Noble Quran.

    The Noble Quran on the Cerebrum: Lying is generated from the person's forehead.

    The region in the brain that controls our movements - In Noble Quran and confirmed by Science.

    Sex determination and human creation in Islam.  Allah Almighty and Prophet Muhammad both claimed that the human gender is determined by the male's ejaculated semen.

    Islam's claim about the 360 joints in the human body was proven to be true!

    Scientists confirm Islam's claims about Adam was 90 feet tall.

    Evidence from the Quran that Allah Almighty created the People (Children) of Adam through Cloning.   (html backup).  Another STUNNING Scientific Claim from Islam.

    Were cloning, human-cloning, and gender alteration prophesied in Islam?

    Alteration of Creation Prophecy:

    Allah Almighty quoted satan telling Him, the Almighty, in the Glorious Quran the following:

    4:119 ولاضلنهم ولامنينهم ولامرنهم فليبتكن اذان الانعام ولامرنهم فليغيرن خلق الله ومن يتخذ الشيطان وليا من دون الله فقد خسر خسرانا مبينا

    [004:119]  and (1) will lead them astray ولاضلنهمand (2) will stir desires within them ولامنينهمand (3) will command them ولامرنهم and (4) they shall cut the ears of animals فليبتكن اذان الانعامand (5) I will command them ولامرنهم to alter the creation of God فليغيرن خلق الله ." He who taketh Satan rather than God for his patron, is ruined with palpable ruin:

    Satan in the five different commands will:

    1-  Lead astray.
    2-  Stir desires.
    3-  Will command the evil ones.
    4-  They will cut the animals' ears.
    5-  Then proceed to alter the creation of GOD Almighty.

      
    Notice the fifth "and":

    (5) and I will command them ولامرنهم  to alter the creation of God فليغيرن خلق الله ."

      

    No animal or idol worship here:

    Idol worship is of course a sin in Islam, but notice in this particular promise of satan to alter Allah Almighty's creations does not include idol worship here.  Iblis, who was mighty and powerful, became very angry from Allah Almighty for having Allah Almighty Command all Beings in the World of Command to bow to the new flesh and blood creation, Adam, peace be upon him and upon all of GOD Almighty's pious creations.  So satan (Iblis) promised Allah Almighty to have these humans, whom Allah was so proud  of, to alter Allah Almighty's creations to prove to Allah that this new flesh and blood creation of His is nothing.

    Slitting of animal ears alone do not alter the creation of Allah Almighty, nor does it alter the creation of the slit animal either.  These is no alteration in creation in just slitting ears.  Besides, humans are known to eat animals anyway.  And the Noble Verse is not talking about animal or idol worship here.  It is only talking about having the creations of Allah Almighty being altered by humans after the slitting of animals' ears.

    Satan's big battle with GOD Almighty is to cause so much evil, among them is to "cut the cattle's ears and to alter the creation of Allah" (4:119), i.e., cloning (as this is how it began today) [1]

    Transgenders also began after Dolly the sheep's cloning.  LGBT (lesbian, gay, bisexual, and transgender) are covered below in this article.  Today they're even researching making males get pregnant, or at least plant fertilized female eggs inside them and grow the fetuses into babies.

      

    Cloning began with the animals' ears:

    The alteration of Allah Almighty's creations indeed began with the cutting of the animals' ears and extracting the necessary somatic cells from them.  Dolly the sheep was the first creation to ever be cloned:

    "Dolly was a female domestic sheep, and the first mammal cloned from an adult somatic cell, using the process of nuclear transfer." (Source)

    "...but somatic cells from ear clippings will be much easier to obtain and are therefore preferable."  (Source, 2, pdf)

    Ample more quotes are below in this article.

      

    Evidence that Allah Almighty created the People of Adam through Cloning in the Glorious Quran.  (html backup).  Cloning is mentioned in multiple places in the Glorious Quran [1], and is one of the End of Times Prophecies as well.  Cloning is definitely NOT a foreign concept in the Glorious Quran.

    Please visit:

  • The Overwhelming Numerical and Scientific Miracles in the Glorious Quran.
  • The Quran's and Islam's Amazing Prophecies.
  •   

    Why does the Noble Quran, while speaking about determination of the identity of the individual, speak specifically about finger tips?  The Noble Quran recognized that finger tips (finger prints) are unique!

    The blood circulation and the production of milk.

    Thinking with the heart besides the brain in the Noble Quran was proven by Science.

     

    He wrote:

    3- Muslims quote an article written in 1957 by the Jehovah's Witnesses who stated there were 50,000 errors in the translation of the King James version. My question is: Even if this were true, (which of course it is not), how does this prove there is corruption in the original Greek MSS from which the King James version was translated?

     

    My response:

    Your original scriptures are all doubtful according to the Bible's own theologians and historians.  It's quite hellarious that even the Bible itself admits that it has been tampered with and corrupted by man's garbage:

    "`How can you say, "We [the Jews] are wise, for we have the law of the LORD," when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?' (From the NIV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"

    The Revised Standard Version makes it even clearer: "How can you say, 'We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us'? But, behold, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie(From the RSV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"

    And regarding who wrote the books and gospels of the Bible, well here is a sample of what the NIV Bible's theologians and historians wrote:

    "Serious doubts exists as to whether these verses belong to the Gospel of Mark.  They are absent from important early manuscripts and display certain peculiarities of vocabulary, style and theological content that are unlike the rest of Mark.  His Gospel probably ended at 16:8, or its original ending has been lost.  (From the NIV Bible Foot Notes, page 1528)"

    "Although the author does not name himself, evidence outside the Scriptures and inferences from the book itself lead to the conclusion that the author was Luke.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1643)"

    "The writer of this letter does not identify himself, but he was obviously well known to the original recipients.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1856)"

    "The letter is difficult to date with precision....(From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1905)"

    "It seems safe to conclude that the book, at least in its early form, dates from the beginning of the monarchy. Some think that Samuel may have had a hand in shaping or compiling the materials of the book, but in fact we are unsure who the final author or editor was.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 286)"

    "Although, according to tradition, Samuel wrote the book, authorship is actually uncertain.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 322)"

    "The date of the composition is also unknown, but it was undoubtedly during the monarchy.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 322)"

    "The author is unknown. Jewish tradition points to Samuel, but it is unlikely that he is the author because the mention of David (4:17,22) implies a later date.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 360)"

    "Who the author was cannot be known with certainty since the book itself gives no indication of his identity.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 368)"

    "There is little conclusive evidence as to the identity of the author of 1,2 Kings.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 459)"

    "Whoever the author was, it is clear that he was familiar with the book of Deuteronomy.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 459)"

    "According to ancient Jewish tradition, Ezra wrote Chronicles, Ezra and Nehemiah (see Introduction to Ezra: Literary Form and Authorship), but this cannot be established with certainty.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 569)"

    "Although we do not know who wrote the book of Esther, from internal evidence it is possible to make some inferences about the author and the date of composition.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 707)"

    "The unknown author probably had access to oral and/or written sources....(From the NIV Bible commentary, page 722)"

    "Regarding authorship, opinions are even more divided....(From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 773)"

    etc...

    How do you respond to this?


    Please visit: Just who were the original authors of the Bible? to see the book's bibliography to the above quotes.

    Also, why don't you visit: Contradictions and proofs of Historical Corruptions in the Bible, and see exactly what I mean, instead of acting like a total fool and saying things that even the Bible refutes in it!

     

    He wrote:

    4- Muslims claim, that the many different translations of the English Bible will render a single text with many different words and phrases. You said this was proof the Bible is corrupted and that the Koran reads exactly the same way everywhere in the world in Arabic. My question is: Since the many English translations of the Koran also render a single text with many different words, does that proof that the Koran is corrupted?

     

    My response:

    No it doesn't, because while there is only one copy of the original Arabic Noble Quran that all Muslims agree upon it's authenticity, the Bible's original sources are all doubtful as I further explained above.

     

    He wrote:

    5- Muslims believe the word Allah was used by Jesus when he hung on the cross. The Bible records that Jesus said "Eli Eli lama sabachthani", but you say Jesus really cried out to Allah and said "Allah, Allah lama sabachthani" My question is: Would you please explain why you would use this argument when you don't believe Jesus ever hung on the cross? And second, since Jesus was quoting Ps 22:1 on the cross, isn't rather unlikely that both the Hebrew Old Testament and the Greek New Testament are wrong using Eli, a Hebrew word, rather than Allah, an arab word?

     

    My response:

    The word "Allah" means the Supreme GOD who is above all gods.  This is GOD Almighty's original Name.  Please visit: www.answering-christianity.com/allah.htm to see that "Allah" was GOD Almighty's original Name in the Bible from Hebrew and Aramaic sources.

    Note:  Jesus spoke and preached in Aramaic.

     

    He wrote:

    6- Muslims chide Christians because the earliest complete copies of the Bible were written 300 years after the originals of the first century. Yet Muslim scholars state the earliest copy of the Koran was written no earlier than 150 years after Muhammad died. My question is: in light of this fact, how could the Koran possibly be better than the Bible and would you please state the name and location and date of the earliest Koran you believe to be in existence?

     

    My response:

    The Noble Quran was documented on the spot!  It wasn't written 150 years after Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him.  Again, show us the quotes and proofs that would support your claims?  You were already proven to be a liar above!  Why should we trust you here?

    To the reader, please visit: Responses to the "Textual Variants" lies in the Noble Quran.  History of the Noble Quran's preservation.

     

    He wrote:

    7- Both the Samarqand MSS is in Tashkent, and the MSS housed in the Topkapi Museum in Istanbul are written in the script style called "Kufic". And not the earlier style known as Ma'il or Mashq. This fact is the reason Muslim scholars date these manuscripts no earlier than 200 years after Muhammad died. My question is: leaving aside blind faith and wishful thinking, what evidence do you supply that these MSS were written any earlier?

     

    My response:

    This section will be divided into two sub-sections:

    1-  The Noble Quran's Manuscripts all preserved.

    2-  The Noble Quran was revealed in Arabic.

     

     

    1-  The Noble Quran's Manuscripts all preserved:

    The following two links were sent to me by brother Hasan Agha, may Allah Almighty be pleased with him:

    The Tashkent Manuscript: www.islamic-awareness.org/Quran/Text/Mss/samarqand.html  

    The Topkapi Manuscript: http://www.islamic-awareness.org/Quran/Text/Mss/topkapi.html  

     

    And for more images and proofs of the Noble Quran's early Manuscripts being preserved, the reader can visit:

    Responses to the "Textual Variants" lies in the Noble Quran.  History of the Noble Quran's preservation.

     

    Allah Almighty Said:
    "We have, without doubt, sent down the Message; and We will assuredly Guard it (from corruption).  (The Noble Quran, 15:9)"

     

     

     

     

    2-  The Noble Quran was revealed in Arabic:

    The Noble Quran was written in Arabic!  Allah Almighty confirmed it in the Noble Quran 1500 years ago:

    "We have sent it down as an Arabic Quran, in order that ye may learn wisdom.  (The Noble Quran, 12:2)"

    "Thus have We revealed it to be a judgment of authority in Arabic. Wert thou to follow their (vain) desires after the knowledge which hath reached thee, then wouldst thou find neither protector nor defender against God.  (The Noble Quran, 13:37)"

    "We know indeed that they say, "It is a man that teaches him." The tongue of him they wickedly point to is notably foreign, while this is Arabic, pure and clear.  (The Noble Quran, 16:103)"

    "Thus have We sent this down - an Arabic Quran - and explained therein in detail some of the warnings, in order that they may fear God, or that it may cause their remembrance (of Him).  (The Noble Quran, 20:113)"

    "In the perspicuous Arabic tongue.   (The Noble Quran, 26:195)"

    "(It is) a Quran in Arabic, without any crookedness (therein): in order that they may guard against Evil.  (The Noble Quran, 39:28)"

    "A Book, whereof the verses are explained in detail;- a Quran in Arabic, for people who understand;-  (The Noble Quran, 41:3)"

    "Had We sent this as a Quran (in the language) other than Arabic, they would have said: "Why are not its verses explained in detail? What! (a Book) not in Arabic and (a Messenger an Arab?" Say: "It is a Guide and a Healing to those who believe; and for those who believe not, there is a deafness in their ears, and it is blindness in their (eyes): They are (as it were) being called from a place far distant!"  (The Noble Quran, 41:44)"

    "Thus have We sent by inspiration to thee an Arabic Quran: that thou mayest warn the Mother of Cities and all around her,- and warn (them) of the Day of Assembly, of which there is no doubt: (when) some will be in the Garden, and some in the Blazing Fire.  (The Noble Quran, 42:7)"

    "We have made it a Quran in Arabic, that ye may be able to understand (and learn wisdom).  (The Noble Quran, 43:3)"

    "And before this, was the Book of Moses as a guide and a mercy: And this Book confirms (it) in the Arabic tongue; to admonish the unjust, and as Glad Tidings to those who do right.  (The Noble Quran, 46:12)"

    Again, to the reader, please visit: Responses to the "Textual Variants" lies in the Noble Quran.  History of the Noble Quran's preservation.

     

    He wrote:

    8- The British Museum in London has an ancient copy of the Koran written in the Ma'il style of script, but practicing Muslim scholar Martin Lings, who is the former curator for the manuscripts of the British Museum, dates this manuscript at 790 AD. My question is: Apart from just making the claim, what evidence do you supply that this MSS were written any earlier?

     

    My response:

    As Islam rapidly spread throughout the lands, until the Islamic Empire reached from the borders of France all the way to the borders of China, many Noble Qurans were written in different languages, and probably many were created from anti-Islamics to inject poison among the Muslims.  What ever the case is, onething for certain, and that is, the original Quraishi Arabic that the Noble Quran was revealed in was preserved.  This is the dialect that Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him spoke, and this is the language that most proper Arabic dialect of all.  That's why Allah Almighty chose it, and that's why it was spoken in Mecca.  Allah Almighty said:

    "We have, without doubt, sent down the Message [The Noble Quran]; and We will assuredly Guard it (from corruption).  (The Noble Quran, 15:9)"

    Also, since you provided no reference of evidence what so ever, and only provided questions in a hope to refute Islam, then why don't you use this same logic to refute your own bible?  The bible is by far the worst book a person can encounter as far as reliability and authenticity.  See the NIV Bible's theologians comments for yourself.

     

    He wrote:

    9- The text of the Koran in 37:103 reads "they had both submitted their wills (became Muslims)" while the Arabic text of the Tashkent MSS gives the exact opposite meaning, "they did not submitted their wills" (they did NOT become Muslims.) My question is: have you actually read the Tashkent MSS for yourself in this passage and how do you explain this textual variation given your comments on the miracle of the perfect Koran?

     

    My response:

    No I have not read it, nor am I interested in it, because it's not the original Arabic that the Noble Quran was revealed in.  Also, I doubt that even you yourself read it.   So therefore, we don't even know whether or not the point you mentioned is true to begin with or not!  Any liar such as yourself can make up lies on the internet.   Unless you have proofs and quotes, we can't trust anything from anyone.

    The reader can visit:  The Preservation of the Noble Quran.  I provided images of the original copies of the Arabic Noble Quran.

     

    He wrote:

    10- Qur’an 18:9, makes into real history, the second century myth of 7 Christian youths who were persecuted for their faith and went to sleep in a cave for 300 years and then woke up with no ill effects. In the original myth the hero is a Christian, but in the Koran the hero is a Muslim. My question is: in the absence of any copyright laws when the Koran was written, are you at least prepared to pay compensation to the living relatives of the author of this myth? If not, would you be in favor of going starting up a charity fund to compensate for damages of copyright infringement?

     

    My response:

    A Muslim is a person who believes in the Absolute One GOD Almighty, and associates no partners with Him; whether it is idols or humans.  Those "Muslims" were not polytheist trinitarian pagans, and thus, the Noble Quran made no error regarding them.   In regards to the biblical story that the Noble Quran doesn't agree with, well that doesn't concern us, because the bible had proven itself to be self contradicting and full of historical errors and corruptions. 

     

    The different "Canons" of the Bible!

    Different and conflicting variations of "gospels" and "books" that are disagreed upon by the Churches today.

     

    Let us look at the following samples:

    Consider the following few examples that consist of historical contradictions in the Bible:

    II Samuel 10:18 talks about David slew the men of 700 chariots of the Syrians and 40,000 horsemen and Shobach the commander.
    I Chronicles 1:18 says that David slew the men of 7000 chariots and 40,000 footmen

    I Chronicles 9:25 says that Solomon had 4000 stalls for horses and chariots.
    I Kings 4:26 says that he had 40,000 stalls for horses

    Ezra 2:5 talks about an exile Arah having 775 sons.
    Nehemiah 7:10 talks about the same exile Arah having 652 sons.

    II Samuel 24:13 So God came to David, and told him, and said unto him, shall SEVEN YEARS OF FAMINE come unto thee in thy land? or will thou flee three months before thine enemies, while they pursue. thee?
    I Chronicles 21:11 SO God came to David, and said unto him, Thus saith the LORD, Choose thee. Either THREE YEARS OF FAMINE or three months to be destryed before thy foes, while that the sword of thine enemies overtaketh thee;

    How did Judas die?
    "And he cast down the pieces of silver into the temple and departed, and went out and hanged himself." (Matthew 27:5)
    "And falling headlong, he burst asunder in the midst, and all of his bowels gushed out." (Acts 1:18)

    2 Samuel 6:23 Therefore MICHAL the daughter of Saul had no child unto the day of her death.
    2 Samuel 21:8 But the king took the two sons of Rizpah the daughter of Aiah, whom she bare unto Saul, Armoni and Mephibosheth; and the five sons of MICHAL the daughter of Saul, whom she brought up for Adriel the son of Barzillai the Meholathite.

    2 Kings 24:8 Jehoiachin was eighteen years old when he began to reign, and he reigned in Jerusalem three months. And his mother's name was Nehushta, the daughter of Elnathan of Jerusalem.
    2 Chronicles 36:9 Jehoiachin was eight years old when he began to reign, and he reigned three months and ten days in Jerusalem: and he did that which was evil in the sight of the LORD.

    26th year of the reign of Asa I Kings 16:6-8
    36th year of the reign of Asa I 2 Chronicles 16:1

    How old was Ahaziah when he began to reign?
    22 in 2 Kings 8:26
    42 in 2 Chronicle 22:2

    Who was Josiah's successor?
    Jehoahaz - 2 Chronicle 36:1
    Shallum - Jeremiah 22:11

    Also, your original scriptures are all doubtful according to the Bible's own theologians and historians.  It's quite hellarious that even the Bible itself admits that it has been tampered with and corrupted by man's garbage:

    "`How can you say, "We [the Jews] are wise, for we have the law of the LORD," when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?' (From the NIV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"

    The Revised Standard Version makes it even clearer: "How can you say, 'We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us'? But, behold, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie(From the RSV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"

    And regarding who wrote the books and gospels of the Bible, well here is a sample of what the NIV Bible's theologians and historians wrote:

    "Serious doubts exists as to whether these verses belong to the Gospel of Mark.  They are absent from important early manuscripts and display certain peculiarities of vocabulary, style and theological content that are unlike the rest of Mark.  His Gospel probably ended at 16:8, or its original ending has been lost.  (From the NIV Bible Foot Notes, page 1528)"

    "Although the author does not name himself, evidence outside the Scriptures and inferences from the book itself lead to the conclusion that the author was Luke.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1643)"

    "The writer of this letter does not identify himself, but he was obviously well known to the original recipients.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1856)"

    "The letter is difficult to date with precision....(From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1905)"

    "It seems safe to conclude that the book, at least in its early form, dates from the beginning of the monarchy. Some think that Samuel may have had a hand in shaping or compiling the materials of the book, but in fact we are unsure who the final author or editor was.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 286)"

    "Although, according to tradition, Samuel wrote the book, authorship is actually uncertain.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 322)"

    "The date of the composition is also unknown, but it was undoubtedly during the monarchy.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 322)"

    "The author is unknown. Jewish tradition points to Samuel, but it is unlikely that he is the author because the mention of David (4:17,22) implies a later date.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 360)"

    "Who the author was cannot be known with certainty since the book itself gives no indication of his identity.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 368)"

    "There is little conclusive evidence as to the identity of the author of 1,2 Kings.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 459)"

    "Whoever the author was, it is clear that he was familiar with the book of Deuteronomy.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 459)"

    "According to ancient Jewish tradition, Ezra wrote Chronicles, Ezra and Nehemiah (see Introduction to Ezra: Literary Form and Authorship), but this cannot be established with certainty.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 569)"

    "Although we do not know who wrote the book of Esther, from internal evidence it is possible to make some inferences about the author and the date of composition.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 707)"

    "The unknown author probably had access to oral and/or written sources....(From the NIV Bible commentary, page 722)"

    "Regarding authorship, opinions are even more divided....(From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 773)"

    etc...

    How do you respond to this?


    Please visit: Just who were the original authors of the Bible? to see the book's bibliography to the above quotes.

    Also, why don't you visit: Contradictions and proofs of Historical Corruptions in the Bible, and see exactly what I mean, instead of acting like a total fool and saying things that even the Bible refutes in it!

     

    He wrote:

    11- Koran 5:116, represents Christians as worshipping Mary which is a historical error. Given the fact that the pagan Arabs did worship Mary’s idol in the Kaba, and that history records no group of Christians had ever worshiped Mary at this time, my question is would you please name the sect of Christians who worshiped Mary at the time of Muhammad?

     

    My response:

    First of all, the Arab pagans had nothing to do with Christianity or with any figure in this religion.  They did not worship Mary's idol.  They had 360 gods that they worshiped, each god representing an Arab tribe.  There were three main gods that were above the 360.  Mary is considered as a "goddess" by Roman Catholics.   Roman Catholics are Christians, even if you don't consider them as such.

    You can learn more about the Roman Catholics worship of Mary at: Some Christians do worship Mary!  The article has quotes in it from Roman Catholic sources that prove that many Catholics worship Mary just as much as you worship Jesus.

     

    He wrote:

    12- Muslim's reject the doctrine of inherited sin of Adam but teach the Immaculate Conception of Mary. The reason the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception was invented was to remove inherited sin. My question is: since you reject the doctrine of inherited sin and believe all men are born without sin, why do Muslim's teach the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception of Mary?

     

    My response:

    First of all, Islam invented nothing.  Tell us, how is a new born baby a sinner?   What sins did he/she commit?  Why in your polytheist trinity pagan religion are babies considered as sinners?

     

    He wrote:

    13- In Koran 7:125, death by crucifixion is stated to exist at the time of Moses in 1500BC. Yet Encyclopedia Britannica, in harmony with all records of history, reports that crucifixion did not exist any earlier than 500 BC. My question is: to how do you explain this blaring historical error, and do you just disregard the history of the world merely because the Karen says otherwise?

     

    My response:

    I found no mention of crucifixtion in Noble Verse 7:125, and I am not aware of any Noble Verse related to your claim.  Here is what Noble Verses 7:120-130 say:

    "But the sorcerers fell down prostrate in adoration. Saying: "We believe in the Lord of the Worlds,- "The Lord of Moses and Aaron." Said Pharaoh: "Believe ye in Him before I give you permission? Surely this is a trick which ye have planned in the city to drive out its people: but soon shall ye know (the consequences). "Be sure I will cut off your hands and your feet on apposite sides, and I will cause you all to die on the cross." They said: "For us, We are but sent back unto our Lord: "But thou dost wreak thy vengeance on us simply because we believed in the Signs of our Lord when they reached us! Our Lord! pour out on us patience and constancy, and take our souls unto thee as Muslims (who bow to thy will)! Said the chiefs of Pharaoh's people: "Wilt thou leave Moses and his people, to spread mischief in the land, and to abandon thee and thy gods?" He said: "Their male children will we slay; (only) their females will we save alive; and we have over them (power) irresistible." Said Moses to his people: "Pray for help from God, and (wait) in patience and constancy: for the earth is God's, to give as a heritage to such of His servants as He pleaseth; and the end is (best) for the righteous. They said: "We have had (nothing but) trouble, both before and after thou camest to us." He said: "It may be that your Lord will destroy your enemy and make you inheritors in the earth; that so He may try you by your deeds." We punished the people of Pharaoh with years (of droughts) and shortness of crops; that they might receive admonition.  (The Noble Quran, 7:120-130)"

    Is this another lie you invented "brother Andrew"?

     

    He wrote:

    14- Muslim scholar, Tabbarah, said in his book, The Spirit of Islam, "Moslems do not worship the Black Stone, but only show special reverence and veneration for its dignity and they kiss it only after the example of the Prophet and to keep their Covenant with God to obey His Will and avoid His disobedience." (Tabbarah, The Spirit of Islam, p. 173, Muslim). Focusing on Tabbarah’s key phrase of showing reverence and veneration to the Black Stone, My question is do you see any difference between the Muslim practice of kissing showing reverence and venerating the Black Stone and the Catholic practice of pope John Paul II kissing the statute of the Virgin Mary with reverence and veneration?

     

    My response:

    First of all, it is "Tabari" and not "Tabbarah".  So obviously the source you gave above was not something you yourself discovered, otherwise, you wouldn't have mispelled his name like that.  Second of all, Muslims do not regard the black stone as anything holy.  We believe that it was send from Heavens by Allah Almighty to the Mecca.  But the stone itself is not sacred in Islam.  Many Muslims try to touch the Kaaba and the stone to get "blessings".  These are the humans' natural reactions to glorifying idols; even among Muslims.  But Islam strictly prohibits glorifying of any idol.

    For more information, you can visit: Do Muslims really worship the black stone in Mecca?

    Do Muslims really worship the cube building in Mecca?  Do Muslims really believe that Allah Almighty lives in the Kaaba?

     

    He wrote:

    15- Informed Christians know there is no passage and the Koran that says the Bible is lost altered or corrupted. My question is would you please list all the passages you know where the Qur'an says the Bible that was in the hands of the Christians at the time of Muhammad had been corrupted?

     

    My response:

    The direct answer to your question is located at: What parts of the Bible do Muslims believe are closest to the Truth? and Why?

    Allah Almighty made no error when He claimed that the Bible was corrupted by men.   The bible had proven itself to be self contradicting and full of historical errors and corruptions. 

     

    The different "Canons" of the Bible!

    Different and conflicting variations of "gospels" and "books" that are disagreed upon by the Churches today.

     

    Let us look at the following samples:

    Consider the following few examples that consist of historical contradictions in the Bible:

    II Samuel 10:18 talks about David slew the men of 700 chariots of the Syrians and 40,000 horsemen and Shobach the commander.
    I Chronicles 1:18 says that David slew the men of 7000 chariots and 40,000 footmen

    I Chronicles 9:25 says that Solomon had 4000 stalls for horses and chariots.
    I Kings 4:26 says that he had 40,000 stalls for horses

    Ezra 2:5 talks about an exile Arah having 775 sons.
    Nehemiah 7:10 talks about the same exile Arah having 652 sons.

    II Samuel 24:13 So God came to David, and told him, and said unto him, shall SEVEN YEARS OF FAMINE come unto thee in thy land? or will thou flee three months before thine enemies, while they pursue. thee?
    I Chronicles 21:11 SO God came to David, and said unto him, Thus saith the LORD, Choose thee. Either THREE YEARS OF FAMINE or three months to be destryed before thy foes, while that the sword of thine enemies overtaketh thee;

    How did Judas die?
    "And he cast down the pieces of silver into the temple and departed, and went out and hanged himself." (Matthew 27:5)
    "And falling headlong, he burst asunder in the midst, and all of his bowels gushed out." (Acts 1:18)

    2 Samuel 6:23 Therefore MICHAL the daughter of Saul had no child unto the day of her death.
    2 Samuel 21:8 But the king took the two sons of Rizpah the daughter of Aiah, whom she bare unto Saul, Armoni and Mephibosheth; and the five sons of MICHAL the daughter of Saul, whom she brought up for Adriel the son of Barzillai the Meholathite.

    2 Kings 24:8 Jehoiachin was eighteen years old when he began to reign, and he reigned in Jerusalem three months. And his mother's name was Nehushta, the daughter of Elnathan of Jerusalem.
    2 Chronicles 36:9 Jehoiachin was eight years old when he began to reign, and he reigned three months and ten days in Jerusalem: and he did that which was evil in the sight of the LORD.

    26th year of the reign of Asa I Kings 16:6-8
    36th year of the reign of Asa I 2 Chronicles 16:1

    How old was Ahaziah when he began to reign?
    22 in 2 Kings 8:26
    42 in 2 Chronicle 22:2

    Who was Josiah's successor?
    Jehoahaz - 2 Chronicle 36:1
    Shallum - Jeremiah 22:11

    Also, your original scriptures are all doubtful according to the Bible's own theologians and historians.  It's quite hellarious that even the Bible itself admits that it has been tampered with and corrupted by man's garbage:

    "`How can you say, "We [the Jews] are wise, for we have the law of the LORD," when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?' (From the NIV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"

    The Revised Standard Version makes it even clearer: "How can you say, 'We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us'? But, behold, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie(From the RSV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"

    And regarding who wrote the books and gospels of the Bible, well here is a sample of what the NIV Bible's theologians and historians wrote:

    "Serious doubts exists as to whether these verses belong to the Gospel of Mark.  They are absent from important early manuscripts and display certain peculiarities of vocabulary, style and theological content that are unlike the rest of Mark.  His Gospel probably ended at 16:8, or its original ending has been lost.  (From the NIV Bible Foot Notes, page 1528)"

    "Although the author does not name himself, evidence outside the Scriptures and inferences from the book itself lead to the conclusion that the author was Luke.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1643)"

    "The writer of this letter does not identify himself, but he was obviously well known to the original recipients.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1856)"

    "The letter is difficult to date with precision....(From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1905)"

    "It seems safe to conclude that the book, at least in its early form, dates from the beginning of the monarchy. Some think that Samuel may have had a hand in shaping or compiling the materials of the book, but in fact we are unsure who the final author or editor was.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 286)"

    "Although, according to tradition, Samuel wrote the book, authorship is actually uncertain.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 322)"

    "The date of the composition is also unknown, but it was undoubtedly during the monarchy.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 322)"

    "The author is unknown. Jewish tradition points to Samuel, but it is unlikely that he is the author because the mention of David (4:17,22) implies a later date.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 360)"

    "Who the author was cannot be known with certainty since the book itself gives no indication of his identity.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 368)"

    "There is little conclusive evidence as to the identity of the author of 1,2 Kings.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 459)"

    "Whoever the author was, it is clear that he was familiar with the book of Deuteronomy.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 459)"

    "According to ancient Jewish tradition, Ezra wrote Chronicles, Ezra and Nehemiah (see Introduction to Ezra: Literary Form and Authorship), but this cannot be established with certainty.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 569)"

    "Although we do not know who wrote the book of Esther, from internal evidence it is possible to make some inferences about the author and the date of composition.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 707)"

    "The unknown author probably had access to oral and/or written sources....(From the NIV Bible commentary, page 722)"

    "Regarding authorship, opinions are even more divided....(From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 773)"

    etc...

    How do you respond to this?


    Please visit: Just who were the original authors of the Bible? to see the book's bibliography to the above quotes.

    Also, why don't you visit: Contradictions and proofs of Historical Corruptions in the Bible, and see exactly what I mean, instead of acting like a total fool and saying things that even the Bible refutes in it!

     

    He wrote:

    16- Muslims will quote Quran 2:79 as a verse where the Koran says the canon of the Bible is corrupted, "Then woe to those who write the Book with their own hands, and then say: "This is from God," to traffic with it for miserable price!" My question is: If this verse refers to the corruption of the Bible, then why did Muhammad command Christians to follow the Bible they possessed in 600 AD in Quran 2:89; 7:157? And is this the only verse in the Koran that says the Bible is corrupt? (see also Quran 2:40-42,126,136,285; 3:3,71,93; 4:47,136; 5:47-51, 69,71-72; 6:91; 10:37,94; 21:7; 29:45,46; 35:31; 46:11)

     

    My response:

    This question is directly answered in details at: How is Allah telling the Christians and Jews to rule in accordance with the Bible that is with them according to Noble Verse 7:157 when these scriptures were corrupted by the followers of the religion and could not be found in their true form?

     

    He wrote:

    17- Muslims will quote Jer 8:8 as proof that the Old Testament canon is corrupt, "How can you say, ‘We are wise, And the law of the Lord is with us’? But behold, the lying pen of the scribes Has made it into a lie" Yet this verse is clearly speaking of the written scribal interpretations of the Bible as Jesus condemned in Mt 15:1-14. Here Jesus accused the Scribes of the same thing regarding washing of hands and Corban, "you invalidate the written word of God for the sake of your tradition." My question is: is this the only text in the Bible where you claim the canon was corrupted? If not quote the other texts.

     

    My response:

    First of all, Jeremiah 8:8 explicitly claims that the Jews had turned the Law of Moses into a "lie".  Here is what the verses says:

    "How can you say, 'We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us'? But, behold, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie(From the RSV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"

    Second of all, the Bible is full of contradictions with its historical and scientific claims.  I have showed you ample evidence above where the Bible contains historical errors and contradictions in it.  To see more verses and proofs, please visit: Contradictions and History of Corruption in the Bible.

     

    He wrote:

    18- How can Muslims claim there are no textual variations in the Koran, when the Tashkent MSS differs from the modern Egyptian Qur’an in 5 passages: 2:284, 2:283, 3:37, 3:109 and 5:119. The Tashkent MSS uses the word 'Allah' while the modern Egyptian Qur'an, uses the word 'huwa' (the pronoun 'he'). My question is: Which word do you believe are in the "preserved master tablet" and "mother of all books" in heaven?

     

    My response:

    First of all, there is no term as "mother of all books" in Islam.   Second of all, you have provided no historical evidence for your claim.   Third, I don't care what was written in Egypt or else where.  Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him lived in Mecca and Madina.  The Noble Quran was compiled in Madina in the original Quraishi Arabic dialect, which is the language Muhammad and the Arabs back then in that area spoke, and the language that the Noble Quran was revealed in. 

    The current Arabic Noble Quran that all Muslims word-wide have is the original Quraishi Arabic Noble Quran.  You don't see different Arabic versions of the Noble Quran today, do you?  There is only ONE Arabic Noble Quran today.

    Again, please visit: Responses to the "Textual Variants" lies in the Noble Quran.

     

    He wrote:

    19- The yearly Passover ritual began the same year it was initiated in the 10th plague and continued uninterrupted for 1500 years. The weekly Lord’s supper ritual began the same week that Christ was crucified and has continued ever since for 2000 years. The Islamic rituals just come out of nowhere, 2600 years after Abraham lived. Being as unbiased as you possibly can, My question is: are not the Jewish and Christian rituals more likely to be based on real history since the rituals of Islam that just pop out of nowhere 2600 years later?

     

    My response:

    When one reads about the history of the Bible, he will see that most of the Bible is corrupt and unreliable.  Also, Islam is nothing but about believing in the Absolute One Living GOD Almighty, and associating no partners with Him. 

    As to the history of Jesus' crucifixion and resurrection, I have written articles that expose the contradictions that the Bible has in both the OT and the NT.  Please visit:

    Contradictions In the Resurrection Story.

    Did Isaiah 53 really prophesies about the crucifixion of Jesus? It supports Islam's claims about Jesus peace be upon him never died on the cross.  I also addressed John 19:36-37 from the Bible and proved that Jesus never got crucified, since GOD Almighty promised that he will protect Jesus' body and not let even a single bone be broken.  My question to all Christians is: How in the world is it possible for the feet to get nailed on the cross without any penetration to the bones by the nails, hence breaking part of the feet's bones?! I also added refutations to Exodus 12:46, Numbers 9:12, Zechariah 12:10 and Psalm 34:20, which supposedly prove the Christians' belief about Jesus crucifixion.  I proved that this dogma has no truth what so ever and exposed the wrong Trinitarian English translation of Zechariah 12:10.

    So, when you get your history straightened out, then you can give yourself the right to attack Islam and its claims.  Otherwise, you don't have that right, because your own Bible can't even suggest an accurate account.

     

    He wrote:

    20- The "Throw" is a reenactment ritual based upon Abraham and the "Run" is a reenactment ritual based upon Hagar. My question is: Did Adam perform the throw and the Run, and if not exactly when did they become part of Islamic ritual and do you have any actual historical evidence to support such?

     

    My response:

    I am not sure what you mean here by "Throw" and "Run".  If you're referring to the throwing of stones at satan during the yearly Pilgrimage to Mecca, then this is not Abrahamic.  And if you're referring to Hagar's running back and forth to find water for her dying baby, Ishmael, then this is was mentioned in the Hadiths of the Prophet. 

    All of the Hadiths that agree with the Noble Quran or make reference to Noble Quranic Verses, then they are valid and strong Hadiths. 

    Also, please visit: The Prophecy of the yearly pilgrimage to Mecca in the Noble Quran.

     

    He wrote:

    21- Given the fact that Isaac Watt, said in his book, Islam and Christianity Today, "By the standards of modern historiography, the crucifixion of Jesus is one of the most certain events in past history" (Watt, Islam and Christianity Today, p. 144). My question is: What historical evidence do you give outside of the Qur'an that Jesus did not die on across?

     

    My response:

    First of all, no one can "historically" prove or disprove the crucifixion or even the existence of Jesus.  All of the books of the Bible's New Testament were written after Jesus.  As I mentioned above, they were written between 150 to 300 years after Jesus.  The earliest one is the gospel of Mark.  According to the "From Jesus to Christ" movie, the gospel of Matthew was written at least 50 years after the gospel of Mark.  Also, neither one of the gospels was written by it's own original author, nor anyone knows really who these authors were.

    From www.answering-christianity.com/sake3.htm

    Who were the authors of the Bible?  Were they really the original Prophets and Desciples?

    So, who then are the authors of the books of the Bible? Obviously the Church must know them very well since they are popularly believed to have received divine inspiration from God Himself. Right? Actually, they don't. For example, we will note that every Gospel begins with the introduction "According to....." such as "The Gospel according to Saint Matthew," "The Gospel according to Saint Luke," "The Gospel according to Saint Mark," "The Gospel according to Saint John." The obvious conclusion for the average man on the street is that these people are known to be the authors of the books attributed to them. This, however is not the case. Why? Because not one of the vaunted four thousand copies existent carries its author's signature. It has just been assumed that certain people were the authors. Recent discoveries, however, refute this belief. Even the internal evidence suggests that, for instance, Matthew did not write the Gospel attributed to him:

    "...And as Jesus passed forth thence, HE (Jesus) saw a man, named Matthew, sitting at the receipt of custom: and HE (Jesus) saith unto HIM (Matthew), follow ME (Jesus) and HE (Matthew) arose, and followed HIM (Jesus). (Matthew 9:9)"

    Did "Matthew" write this about himself? Why then didn't Matthew write for example: "he (Jesus) saw ME, and my name is Matthew. I was sitting at the receipt of custom…" etc.

    Such evidence can be found in many places throughout the New Testament. Granted, it may be possible that an author sometimes may write in the third person, still, in light of the rest of the evidence that we shall see throughout this book, there is simply too much evidence against this hypothesis.

    This observation is by no means limited to the New Testament. There is even similar evidence that at least parts of Deuteronomy were not written by their claimed author, prophet Moses  . This can be seen in Deuteronomy 34:5-10 where we read

    "So Moses....DIED... and he (God Almighty) BURIED HIM (Moses)... He was 120 years old WHEN HE DIED... and there arose not a prophet SINCE in Israel like unto Moses....(Deuteronomy 34:5-10)"

    Did Moses write his own obituary? Similarly, Joshua too speaks in detail about his own death in Joshua 24:29-33.

    "And it came to pass after these things, that Joshua the son of Nun, the servant of the Lord, DIED, … And they BURIED HIM … And Israel served the Lord all the days of Joshua, and all the days of the elders that overlived Joshua, and which had known all the works of the Lord, that he had done for Israel ….(Joshua 24:29-33)"

    Such evidence is part of the large cache which has driven the Biblical scholars to come to the current recognition that most of the books of the Bible were not written by their supposed authors. For example, the authors of the Revised Standard Version of the Bible by Collins honestly say that the author of "Kings" is "Unknown." But if the author is unknown then why attribute it to God? How can it then be claimed to have been "inspired"? Continuing, we read that the book of Isaiah is "Mainly credited to Isaiah. Parts may have been written by others." Ecclesiastics: "Author. Doubtful, but commonly assigned to Solomon." Ruth: "Author. Not definitely known, perhaps Samuel." and on and on.

    Let us have a slightly more detailed look at only one book of the New Testament, that of 'Hebrews':

    "The author of the Book of Hebrews is unknown. Martin Luther suggested that Apollos was the author...Tertullian said that Hebrews was a letter of Barnabas...Adolf Harnack and J. Rendel Harris speculated that it was written by Priscilla (or Prisca). William Ramsey suggested that it was done by Philip. However, the traditional position is that the Apostle Paul wrote Hebrews...Eusebius believed that Paul wrote it, but Origen was not positive of Pauline authorship."

    From the introduction to the King James Bible, New revised and updated sixth edition, the Hebrew/Greek Key Study, Red Letter Edition

    and one book of the Old Testament:

    "In tradition, [David] is credited with writing 73 of the Psalms; most scholars, however, consider this claim questionable."

    Encarta Encyclopedia, under "David"

    Is this how we define "inspired by God"?

    I asked a reverand of the local church in my neighboorhod, on what gospel most often quoted and used, he quickly answered, the Gospel of St. John!

    The original Bible was lost! See comments from the NIV Bible itself.  No one ever claimed ownership of the current Gospels.  The owners/writers are unknown.    

     

    He wrote:

    22- If all Muslim's must reject the crucifixion of Christ based on the Koran and all Christians must reject Muhammad as a prophet based on the Bible, my question is: on exactly what basis do you believe Christianity and Islam are compatible religions?

     

    My response:

    The crucifixion of Jesus contradicts the Old Testament.  For instance, where in the Old Testament do you see a prophecy about Jesus' third day resurrection?  And why are there contradictions in the resurrection story in the NT?  Also, the Old Testament predicted that not a single bone would break from the coming Prophet, Jesus.  Given the scientific fact that the body contains thousands of bones, how is it possible for Jesus who got nailed on the cross to not have broken at least one bone, if not even many?

    Please visit: Did Isaiah 53 really prophesies about the crucifixion of Jesus? It supports Islam's claims about Jesus peace be upon him never died on the cross.  I also addressed John 19:36-37 from the Bible and proved that Jesus never got crucified, since GOD Almighty promised that he will protect Jesus' body and not let even a single bone be broken.  My question to all Christians is: How in the world is it possible for the feet to get nailed on the cross without any penetration to the bones by the nails, hence breaking part of the feet's bones?! I also added refutations to Exodus 12:46, Numbers 9:12, Zechariah 12:10 and Psalm 34:20, which supposedly prove the Christians' belief about Jesus crucifixion.  I proved that this dogma has no truth what so ever and exposed the wrong Trinitarian English translation of Zechariah 12:10.

     

    He wrote:

    23- Given the fact that the gospel of Barnabas is the 15th century forgery by Muslims, my question is: why do you quote this document as proof that early Christians denied the crucifixion of Christ and what proof do you offer that it is not a Muslim forgery?

     

    My response:

    First of all, you have no proof that it was a forgery by "Muslims", nor do you have any proof that it was written in the 15th century!  This is only a Christian lie and roamer that kept spreading to discredit the discovered Book.  The entire Book of Barnabas can be found on my site at: www.answering-christianity.com/barnabas.htm

     

    He wrote:

    24- Muslim's will quote Yusuf Ali’s comment in footnote 663, as proof that the three early Christian sects of Marcion, Docetism, Basilides, denied the crucifixion of Christ. Given the fact the three sects are condemned as false teachers, deceivers and the anti-Christ in six Bible passages (1 John 1:1,14; 2:22; 4:1-3; 5:6; 2 John 7) My question is: on what basis do you claim they are Christian sects and isn't it as much of a misrepresentation for you to quote these Gnostic sects as Christians who deny the crucifixion, as it would be a misrepresentation for Christians to quote the Baha'i faith as proof Muhammad was not the final Prophet? (The holy Qur’an, text, translation and commentary by Abdullah Yusuf Ali. 1872-1952, First published in 1938, 1973 ed., p. 230, footnote 663, commenting on 4:157)

     

    My response:

    See Also:

    The "Son of God" Title in the 1 John 2:22

    Jesus is Yahweh the Son?  See how Christians got this very wrong in the NT, using Jesus' words himself!
    Also, is Islam the anti-Christ system according to 1 John 2:22?

    Anti-Christ | 1john 2:22-23 | 911 was 100% an Israeli Lie | Boston | 666| Dividing Israel

    Also visit:

  • Trinity Crucified!  100s of verses prove trinity is false.  Jesus healed others only after getting permissions from GOD Almighty.  His wishes were sometimes denied. [1] [2]
  • Note:  The (*) links below are html backups of the website's blog topic threads, in case the blog and its database are down.

      

    From: www.answering-christianity.com/convert_christians.htm:

      

    1 John 2:22-23 are discussed further down in details in this table.

  • God in the OT addresses people as "my son" and describes them as his begotten son.  Why does God use these terms with others in the time of Moses and Jesus and Abraham and other prophets, and now condemns these tittles in the Quran?  Why would God give room to misuse these terms like the Greek and Romans did?

  •   

    Son of GOD definition:

    In the Bible, "the Son" refers to the Messiah, - the Ultimate Messenger to the Jews.  Son in their time meant Servant of GOD.  Allah Almighty also explained it precisely like this in the Glorious Quran: "....servants raised to honour.  (The Noble Quran, 21:26)".  Please visit:

    www.answering-christianity.com/definition_son_of_god.htm

    This is what we will be called in Heaven, and Allah Almighty also does recognize "Son of GOD" title in the Glorious Quran, but Says that they are no more than pious "....servants raised to honour.  (The Noble Quran, 21:26)".  Nothing Divine about them except that they exist with Allah Almighty Eternally in Heaven.  But as far as Divine Authority and Power, all Divine Authority and Power belong to Allah Almighty Alone and none else.  You can visit:
      
    www.answering-christianity.com/definition_son_of_god.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/son_of_god_in_bible_and_quran_debate.ppt
    www.answering-christianity.com/son_of_god.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/son_translation.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/debate_templates.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/convert_christians.htm

  • Trinity Crucified!  100s of verses prove trinity is false.  Jesus healed others only after getting permissions from GOD Almighty.  His wishes were sometimes denied. [1] [2]
  •   

    And other great figures in the Old Testament were also called:

    1-  GOD (El) of other people.
    2-  Son of GOD.
    3-  Begotten Son of GOD.
    4-  GOD's First Born.
    5-  GOD's Heir and Heirs (for believers).
    6-  GODly name with Yahweh and El attached to the name.
    7-  King of Kings (called by Yahweh Himself in the OT).
    8-  All believers are GODs (Elohim) and Sons of GOD (Beni Elohim).
      

    Is Jesus "God's Son" or "God's Servant (SLAVE)?" [1]

    King James Version
    Acts 3:25 - Ye are the children of the prophets, and of the covenant which God made with our fathers, saying unto Abraham, And in thy seed shall all the kindreds of the earth be blessed.

    Acts 3:26 - Unto you first God, having raised up his Son Jesus, sent him to bless you, in turning away every one of you from his iniquities.

    New King James Version
    Acts 3:25 - You are the sons of the prophets, and of the covenant which God made with our fathers, saying to Abraham, 'And in your seed all the families of the earth shall be blessed.

    Acts 3:26 - To you first, God, having raised up His Servant Jesus, sent Him to bless you, in turning every one of you away from his iniquities.

    "Servant" here is slave.  Jesus was called ABD (SLAVE) in the OT [2], the
    same word used for the Jews' slaves, and all slaves in general, throughout
    the Bible [
    2].  Jesus, the abd of GOD, is also the slave of GOD in the NT.

    In Arabic also it's the same.  My name Osama Abdallah, which means
    Osama slave of Allah (GOD).  Slave is a subject of GOD.  A servant is
    independent and has a free will.  He/she can quit serving.  But a
    slave (ABD) is OWNED.
      

    I elaborated on this point in details at:

    www.answering-christianity.com/godtitle.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/questions.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/trinity_crucified.htm#king_of_kings_lie
    www.answering-christianity.com/trinity_crucified.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/jesus_called_slave_in_bible.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/son_of_god.htm

    The Servants are the Prophets of Israel.  But Jesus is "the Son" because he is the Messiah, the highest Jew and highest Jewish Prophet.

      

    Jesus was called ABD (SLAVE) of GOD:

    www.answering-christianity.com/jesus_called_slave_in_bible.htm

      

    John 1:1:

    John 1:1 answered from the Glorious Quran Includes a Scientific Miracle in the Glorious Quran.

    John 1:1
    "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God
    was with authority (same Greek word for satan's rule [ [1] [2] [3])
    ."

      

    The Word encompasses Jesus:

    From www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php/topic,2884.msg13839.html#msg13839:

    From brother Shaad:

    The Logos and Jesus are differentiated in Revelation.....

    Revelation 20:4 King James Version (KJV)

    4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the ;witness of Jesus, and for the word of God...

    Revelation 1:2

    2 who testifies to everything he saw—that is, the word of God and the 


    Jazaka Allah Khayr, dear brother Shaad.  I took the liberty to add the emphasis to your text, akhi.  Indeed, the Word of GOD Almighty ENCOMPASSES Jesuss, because he was made/created from it; exactly as Islam declares.

    Trinity is false.  I have added your addition to:

    www.answering-christianity.com/word_of_god.htm

    Osama Abdallah

      

    Messiah definition::

    www.answering-christianity.com/definition_of_maseeh_in_quran.htm

      

    The Doubting Thomas:
      
    Doubting Thomas said
    "My Lord and my God" to Jesus.  Yet, all believers were called "God", and Moses was the "God" of the Believers, Aaron and Pharaoh:

  • Moses was called "The God" (Exodus 7:1) of the Believers, Aaron and Pharaoh.  Jesus said he was greater than Moses.  Thomas, the Disciple, called Jesus "My Lord and my God" (John 20:28).  Jesus denied to be GOD Almighty.  All Believers were called "GODS and Sons of GOD" (Psalm 82:6) in the Bible.  "GOD" in the Bible also means master, leader, priest.  Therefore, the doubting Thomas' statement didn't suggest that Jesus was his Creator.  And Jesus being a "God" doesn't mean that he is GOD Almighty.  He is just another mere "God" like the rest of the believing creations and nothing more.
      

  • The Bible also says that Jesus had to be "in according to Melchizedek".  And who is Melchizedek?  According to the Bible, he was the Jews' highest priest who had "no father and no mother", and "no beginning and no end" (Genesis 14:18, Psalm 110:4, Hebrews 5:6-10, Hebrews 7:1-20).  Jesus had to be similar and inline with him; another proof that Jesus being "God" doesn't mean he is the Creator of the Universe.
      
  • The Bible called Jesus a slave (abd) of GOD throughout the Old Testament!
      
  • Jesus denied knowing when Judgment Day will come, and said I DON'T KNOW, ONLY GOD ALONE KNOWS!
  • For ample more details, visit:

    www.answering-christianity.com/godtitle.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/convert_christians.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/son_of_god.htm

  • Also, the Family of Allah أهل الله in Islam, and the Majestic "We" [1] [2] [3]
  • www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php?topic=1904.msg7673#msg7673
    www.answering-christianity.com/john20_28.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/jesus_had_no_will.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/jesus_miracles.htm (non of Jesus' Miracles were unique)
    www.answering-christianity.com/ac7.htm#links
    www.answering-christianity.com/jesus_called_slave_in_bible.htm

  • Trinity Crucified!  100s of verses prove trinity is false.  Jesus healed others only after getting permissions from GOD Almighty.  His wishes were sometimes denied. [1] [2]
  •   

    Jesus' Original Name:

    Prophet Jesus' original name was Eesa, as this is also his Islamic name.  Even in Latin, it is Iesu, and in Greek it is Iesus.  There is also a great deal of evidence that Jesus spoke and preached in Arabic.  Not only that, but Greek wasn't even that popular in Palestine.  Islam's claims are very strongly supported.  See proofs below.

      

    Did early Christians preach Prophet Muhammad in Rome?

    Did the early believers preach Prophet Muhammad in Corinth, Antioch, Rome and all other places?  Prophet Jesus, peace be upon him, was the Jews' Messiah and final Prophet.  In both the Glorious Quran and the Dead Sea Scrolls, Ahmed was prophesied to come.  Ahmed in the Quran is Prophet Muhammad's prophetic name.  Also, see below the Dead Sea Scroll image.  The New Testament too predicts the coming of three:

    1.  Elijah.
    2.  The Messiah.
    3.  The Prophet.

    John 1:19-21 and John 7:40-44.  Click on the images to expand:
      
        

  • John the Baptist calls Jesus a liar! (Matthew 11:1-6).

  •   

    So did the early believers preach the coming of Prophet Ahmed or Muhammad?  The answer is quite possible, but Muhammad would've been phase 2 for them and not phase 1.  Jesus was the early believers' immediate Prophet, not Muhammad.  And all of the details that they had were about Jesus, not Muhammad.  It is also important to know that the following seven Roman Emperors have thoroughly burned all of the early believers' writings:

    1.  Nero (54-68)
    2.  Domitian (81-96)
    3.  Marcus Aurelius (161-180)
    4.  Septimius Severus (193-211; up to a point)
    5.  Maximinius I Thrax (235-8; up to a point)
    6.  Trajanus Decius (249-251)
    7.  Valerian (253-260)

    Read all the details with references here.

    What we have today from "gospels" and "New Testament" were written 80 years to 300 years after Jesus' departure from this earth.  So, the current writings that we have are not original writings.  Also, to appease the Roman Empire's 3-headed pagan religion and practices, the pagan 3-headed trinity was invented [1] [2] [3] [4] [5].  Many lies had been fabricated after the original writings were all lost.  The Jews and Christians of Arabia, however, did have writings that predicted the coming of Prophet Muhammad.  These were some of the original texts that survived.

    From Why Jews settled in Arabia section:


    Video and text are in the linked section above.

      

    Jesus also preached in Arabic:

    See the clear proofs in the following:

  • Proofs that early Christian believers' title was MUSLIMS from the Jews' and Christians sources themselves.  Also, Greek wasn't even the first language in Palestine, nor was it even hardly spoken by the natives there.
      
  • Also, ample proofs that Jesus also spoke and preached in Arabic, and there were many early manuscripts written in Arabic that spoke about the coming of Prophet Muhammad in details.  Arabic is estimated to date back 8000 to 20000 years by non-Muslim researchers, and had always been the first language in the entire lands of the Middle East, North and Central Africa.
      
  • Prophet Muhammad in the Early Christians' writings.
      
  • Prophet Muhammad foretold, by the name, in the previous Scriptures.  We still have texts today and from the Bible itself and outside the Bible that tell about the coming of Prophet Muhammad and Islam as the Servant of GOD Almighty and the New Religion and Covenant of GOD Almighty, respectively.
      
  • Important:
      
    What is the definition of Messiah in the Quran?
    Jesus was created from the Word of GOD and filled with the Holy Spirit, according to Islam.
      
  • In the Bible, Muslims, Salamays, Mushlams, Mushlems, Mushlimana are the Believers' original title [1].  Islam came to restore the original Faith [1].
      

  •   

    Prophet "AHMAD" is found in the Dead Sea Scrolls:
      
      

    (Film in this article)

      
    Prophet Muhammad in the previous Scriptures.  Prophet Muhammad was thoroughly foretold in the Bible, and his prophetic Name, "Ahmed", was also found in the Dead Sea Scrolls, and it was mentioned precisely in the Glorious Quran for the Prophet to be foretold by this very Name, Ahmed [1] [2].

      

    Father and Son Definitions:

    Definition of Key Terms (*) (a discussion between me and a Christian):

    1-  What does "The Father" really mean in the Bible?  How is it defined in Islam? (see point #5 below)  How does the Bible really define it?

    2-  What does "Son of GOD" really mean in the Bible? 

    3-  Jesus had to match Melchizedek in Miracles and Power, according to the New Testament.  See this text-debate (*) between me and a Christian.  Jesus' Miracles and Miraculous Birth and Nature were given to him because he needed to be in according to Melchizedek.  He had to be “in according to Melchizedek” as the Bible specifically says.  See Genesis 14:18, Psalm 110:4, Hebrews 5:6-10, Hebrews 7:1-20 [2].

      

    Who is Melchizedek?

    According to the Bible, he was the Jews' highest priest who had "no father and no mother", and "no beginning and no end" (Genesis 14:18, Psalm 110:4, Hebrews 5:6-10, Hebrews 7:1-20) [2].  The Bible literally says that.  Jesus had to be similar and inline with him; another proof that Jesus being "God" doesn't mean he is the Creator of the Universe.

  • Is Jesus Allah Almighty for creating things in the Noble Quran?  And is he better than Prophet Muhammad for being a creator?  And is there a contradiction in the Noble Quran regarding idol gods not being able to create and Jesus Christ?  See the Books that Allah Almighty gave to certain powerful Beings to enable them to possess certain Powers and to do certain Miracles, including limited Creations.
      

  • Also again, see this text-debate (*) between me and a Christian.
      

  • 4-  Does the Bible say that Yahweh created Jesus Yes it does (*)

  • John 1:1
    "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God was with authority
    (same Greek word for satan's rule (*) [2] [3])."
      

  • Detailed discussion about Jesus' Will (*) with ample verses.
      

  • In Islam, there are three "Worlds" or Realms:

  • (a)-  GOD Almighty, who is not seen by anyone or anything, nor is like unto anyone or anything.

    (b)-  The World of Command, which is the invisible world of the Beings that were made by the Word and the Spirit.

    (c)-  The World of Creation, the flush and blood, dust and water physical world and Universes (plural).

    Also visit: Is the Noble Quran a Creator or Creation?

      
      
    "Father" and "Son" in Islam and the Bible:

    Christians often quote the following verses to prove that Islam is the Anti-Christ:

    1 John 2
    22  Who is a liar but he that denies that Jesus is the Christ? He is antichrist, that denieth the Father and the Son.
    23  No one who denies the Son has the Father; whoever acknowledges the Son has the Father also.

      

    5-  What does the Glorious Quran say about the “Father” and “Son” titles:

  • The Quran is against the exaggerated and inflated meanings of the words, which ultimately the polytheistic religion of trinity was born out of.
      

  • Allah Almighty Said: "And they say: "(God) Most Gracious has begotten offspring." Glory to Him! they are (but) servants raised to honour (The Noble Quran, 21:26)"
      

    From http://www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php?topic=2141.msg9505#msg9505:

      

    The Family of Allah أهل الله in Islam, and the Majestic "We":
      

    .......

    In regards to your question, there are two legitimate answers for it:
      
    1-  GOD Almighty can and does refer to Himself as WE and I.  So the plural We can and does refer to Allah Almighty Alone.
      
    2-  In Allah Almighty's Realm, there are the People of Allah.   AHLU ALLAH أهل الله (Family of Allah)).

  • Go to www.google.com  إن لله - تعالى - أهلين من الناس، قالوا: يا رسول الله من هم؟ قال: هم أهل القران، أهل الله وخاصته
      
  • The Hadith in Arabic translates as:
      
    "; أهلين from mankind.  They asked: "O Messenger of Allah, who are they?"  He said: They are the People of the Quran; the Family/People of GOD أهل الله , and they are His Special Ones خاصته.";
      

      
  • This is what we will be called in Heaven, and Allah Almighty also does recognize "Son of GOD" title in the Glorious Quran, but Says that they are no more than pious  (The Noble Quran, 21:26))".  Nothing Divine about them except that they exist with Allah Almighty Eternally in Heaven.  But as far as Divine Authority and Power, all Divine Authority and Power belong to Allah Almighty Alone and none else.  You can visit:
      
    www.answering-christianity.com/definition_son_of_god.htm (The definition of "Son of God" in Islam)
    www.answering-christianity.com/son_of_god_in_bible_and_quran_debate.ppt
    www.answering-christianity.com/son_of_god.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/son_translation.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/debate_templates.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/convert_christians.htm

  • Trinity Crucified!  100s of verses prove trinity is false.  Jesus healed others only after getting permissions from GOD Almighty.  His wishes were sometimes denied. [1] [2]
  •   

    Iblis, who later became satan, used to be from AHLU ALLAH أهل الله (Family of Allah) when he was a pious Servant.  /span> But because he and his followers disobeyed GOD Almighty, they were cursed and kicked out of the COMMUNITY OF GOD Almighty:
      
    www.answering-christianity.com/adam.htm
      
    So it is quite possible that Allah Almighty uses the WE to refer to Him and His Servants that HE spoke with directly and Commanded directly.  But even in that ca/span>se, the WE still also means Allah Almighty Alone (the Majestic We), because Allah Almighty is the
     One and Only Decision Maker, and there is none other besides Him.
      
    I hope this helps, insha'Allah.
      
    Take care,
    Osama Abdallah

      
      

  • So people did call each others “Son” and “Daughter” of “GOD”. But in all reality, they are no more than Servants of GOD raised to honor.
          

  • Here are some Bible facts regarding "FATHER" and "SON": 
      

  • Allah Almighty is the Believers' only Guardian (المولى): See Noble Verses 8:40, 22:13, 22:78/font>.
      
  • In Arabic we say ولي الأمر , which means "The Legal Guardian".  المولى is derived from the root word ولي  .ولي also means a chosen friend to Allah Almighty.
      
  • FRIENDS = SONS in the Bible and Quran (ولي , وليهما and خليلا).  We further read the following in the Bible:

    Isaiah 41:8/font> "But you, Israel, my servant, Jacob, whom I have chosen, you descendants of Abraham my friend,

    Chronicles 20:7 Our God, did you not drive out the inhabitants of this land before your people Israel and give it forever to the descendants of Abraham your friend?

    James 2:23 And the scripture was fulfilled that says, "Abraham believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness," and he was called God's friend.
      
  • So being GOD Almighty's "SON" in the Bible is equal to being GOD Almighty's "FRIEND".  Now compare this to the following from the Holy Quran:
      
    [002:257] Allah is the friend (ولي) and patron of those who believe. He brings them out of the depths of darkness into light. While those who do not believe, have the forces of evil as their friends; they lead them out of light, into the very depths of darkness. Such ones shall be the inmates of the fire. They will stay there forever.
      
    [003:122] (And remember) when the two groups among you lost heart (and almost fell out), even though Allah was their Friend and Protector (وليهما)? In Allah (alone), should the believers place their trust!
      
    [004:125] Who can be better in religion than one who submits his whole self to God, does good, and follows the way of Abraham the true in Faith? For God did take Abraham for a friend (خليلا).
      
  • So the Bible's "FATHER" & "SON" for GOD Almighty and the Believers is clearly metaphoric, and it only means that GOD Almighty:
    1-  Is the Protector.
    2-  Is the Friend.
    3-  Is the Guardian.
      
  • Also, BEGET = CHOSE.
      
  • King James Bible Psalm 2:7 I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.
      
  • Allah Almighty used اصطفاك اصطفيتك يصطفي اصطفى اصطفينا to mean to Choose a Servant in Noble Verses 27:59, 3:33, 3:42, 7:144, 22:75, 35:32, 38:47, 39:4 in the Glorious Quran.
      
  • So clearly Islam is in harmony with GOD Almighty being our:

    -  Guardian
    -  Friend
    -  Protector
    -  And the One who Chose us.
      
  • And we definitely believe that Jesus is the Messiah.
      
  • One last important point:  Nowhere in the Bible is Jesus ever called "from the Seed of GOD" or "the Seed of GOD".  We do have "Jesus is from the seed of David" (Psalm 132:10-11, Romans 1:3)But never from GOD!
      
  • GOD has no seed according to both the Bible and the Quran.
      
  • Therefore, the claim that Islam is the Anti-Christ is false.
  •  

    So, is Islam the anti-Christ system according to 1john 2:22 No it isn't.  Here are some Quran and Bible facts regarding "FATHER" and "SON" in more details:

    (a)-  Allah Almighty is the Believers' only Guardian (المولى):

  • See Noble Verses 8:40, 22:13, 22:78.  In Arabic we say ولي الأمر , which means "The Legal Guardian".  المولى is derived from the root word ولي  .ولي also means a chosen friend to Allah Almighty, as in the following point.   

  • (b)-  FRIENDS = SONS in the Bible and Quran (ولي , وليهما and خليلا):

    We further read the following in the Bible:

    Isaiah 41:8
    "But you, Israel, my servant, Jacob, whom I have chosen, you descendants of Abraham my friend,

    Chronicles 20:7
    Our God, did you not drive out the inhabitants of this land before your people Israel and give it forever to the descendants of Abraham your friend?

    James 2:23
    And the scripture was fulfilled that says, "Abraham believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness," and he was called God's friend.

    So being GOD Almighty's "SON" in the Bible is equal to being GOD Almighty's "FRIEND".  Now compare this to the following from the Holy Quran:

    [002:257] Allah is the friend (ولي) and patron of those who believe. He brings them out of the depths of darkness into light. While those who do not believe, have the forces of evil as their friends; they lead them out of light, into the very depths of darkness. Such ones shall be the inmates of the fire. They will stay there forever.

    [003:122] (And remember) when the two groups among you lost heart (and almost fell out), even though Allah was their Friend and Protector (وليهما)? In Allah (alone), should the believers place their trust!

    [004:125] Who can be better in religion than one who submits his whole self to God, does good, and follows the way of Abraham the true in Faith? For God did take Abraham for a friend (خليلا).

    So the Bible's "FATHER" & "SON" for GOD Almighty and the Believers is clearly metaphoric, and it only means that GOD Almighty:

    1-  Is the Protector.
    2-  Is the Friend.
    3-  Is the Guardian.

    Please visit the following link to further see what Words the Glorious Quran uses for these words and definitions:

    http://www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php/topic,1368.msg5203.html#msg5203     (backup)

      
    (c)-  BEGET = CHOSE:

    Regarding the following verse, and many others like it:

    King James Bible Psalm 2:7
    I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.

    Let us look at Noble Verses 27:59, 3:33, 3:42, 7:144, 22:75, 35:32, 38:47, 39:4 from the Glorious Quran:

    [027:059] Say: Praise be to God, and Peace on his servants whom He has chosen اصطفى (for his Message). (Who) is better?- God or the false gods they associate (with Him)?

    ‏27:59 قل الحمد لله وسلام على عباده الذين اصطفى ءالله خير اما يشركون

    [003:033] God did choose اصطفى Adam and Noah, the family of Abraham, and the family of 'Imran above all people,-

    ‏3:33 ان الله اصطفى ادم ونوحا وال ابراهيم وال عمران على العالمين

    [003:042] Behold! the angels said: "O Mary! God hath chosen thee اصطفاك and purified thee- chosen thee above the women of all nations.

    ‏3:42 واذ قالت الملائكة يامريم ان الله اصطفاك وطهرك واصطفاك على نساء العالمين

    [007:144] (God) said: "O Moses! I have chosen thee اصطفيتك above (other) men, by the mission I (have given thee) and the words I (have spoken to thee): take then the (revelation) which I give thee, and be of those who give thanks."

    ‏7:144 قال ياموسى اني اصطفيتك على الناس برسالاتي وبكلامي فخذ ما اتيتك وكن من الشاكرين

    [022:075] God chooses يصطفي messengers from angels and from men for God is He Who hears and sees (all things).

    ‏22:75 الله يصطفي من الملائكة رسلا ومن الناس ان الله سميع بصير

    [035:032] Then We have given the Book for inheritance to such of Our Servants as We have chosen اصطفينا: but there are among them some who wrong their own souls; some who follow a middle course; and some who are, by God's leave, foremost in good deeds; that is the highest Grace.

    ‏35:32 ثم اورثنا الكتاب الذين اصطفينا من عبادنا فمنهم ظالم لنفسه ومنهم مقتصد ومنهم سابق بالخيرات باذن الله ذلك هو الفضل الكبير

    [038:047] They were, in Our sight, truly, of the company of the Elect المصطفين and the Good.

    ‏38:47 وانهم عندنا لمن المصطفين الاخيار

    [039:004] Had God wished to take to Himself an (actual) son, He could have chosen لاصطفى whom He pleased out of those whom He doth create: but Glory be to Him! (He is above such things.) He is God, the One, the Irresistible.

    ‏39:4 لو اراد الله ان يتخذ ولدا لاصطفى مما يخلق مايشاء سبحانه هو الله الواحد القهار

    Furthermore, when Jesus was asked about when the Hour will come, he replied by saying that only GOD Almighty Knows, and that no one knows, and that Jesus himself also didn't know.  Please visit:

    http://www.answering-christianity.com/questions.htm
    http://www.answering-christianity.com/ac7.htm#links

  • Trinity Crucified!  100s of verses prove trinity is false.  Jesus healed others only after getting permissions from GOD Almighty.  His wishes were sometimes denied. [1] [2]

  •   

    Jesus spelled it out clearly that he knew NOT.  And as to calling GOD Almighty "Father", and that Islam denies that GOD Almighty is an ACTUAL FATHER to anyone, in Islam GOD Almighty is called:

    1-  Rab - Lord, Father (you are the Rab of your home for being the husband and the father).

    2-  Wali - Guardian.

    In the old Aramaic and Hebrew, GOD Almighty was called what-is-equivalent-to-Islam our Rab and Wali.  But that doesn't make GOD Almighty our actual Father.  This is exactly as Judaism metaphors such as idolatry is equivalent to spiritual adultery.  No Jew is actually married to GOD Almighty to actually commit a personal marriage-adultery against GOD Almighty!  Yet, the Jews use metaphors like these.  Islam came to straighten all of this out and to set the record straight that GOD Almighty has no son and no daughter.  Otherwise, why would GOD Almighty torture us to Hell if we were His perfect sons and daughters??  No imperfect being could be an actual son of GOD Almighty (and no being is the son or daughter of GOD Almighty, period!):

    [005:018] (Both) the Jews and the Christians say: "We are sons of God, and his beloved." Say: "Why then doth He punish you for your sins? Nay, ye are but men,- of the men he hath created: He forgiveth whom He pleaseth, and He punisheth whom He pleaseth: and to God belongeth the dominion of the heavens and the earth, and all that is between: and unto Him is the final goal (of all)"

    Again, please visit: http://www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php/topic,1368.msg5203.html#msg5203     (backup).

      

    The Logical Fallacy and Corruption of 1 John 2:22:

    (d)-  Let's thoroughly look at the logical fallacy of this verse and its corruption:

    1-  " Who is the liar"??  Or should the text say who is the one who disbelieves?

  • The text clearly suggests that the book was written by a mere individual, whose emotions caused him to make a logical fallacy in the text, hence he is not a genuine Messenger of GOD.
     

  • Furthermore, we don't see this statement anywhere else throughout the Bible!  For such a serious statement to be truly from GOD Almighty, we would expect it to at the very least exist in any or all of the four gospels.  But it exists in none, and not even in Paul's writings either.  It only exists once in this late epistle.
     

  • Furthermore, the Bible’s commentary regarding 1 John book say:

    "1 John does not tell us who its author is.  The earliest identification of him comes from the church fathers..."  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1904)

    "The letter is difficult to date with precision...."  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1905)

    For book bibliography, visit: www.answering-christianity.com/authors_gospels.htm

  •   
    2-  Also keep in mind that the 1 John book contains forgeries.  For example:

  • 1 John 5:7  "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one."  This verse was proven to be a forgery, and was removed from all of the modern Bible translations.

    Please visit: www.answering-christianity.com/1john5_7.htm

  •   

    6-  Did you know that Elohim is Allah [1, *] [2] [3].  The "im" in Hebrew is a majestic plural for GOD Almighty.  The root Word is "Eloh".  And the more original Jews such as Yemenites and others say Alohim or Alah-im.  And when you yourself pronounce it, you do naturally pronounce it with a double "l": Allah.  Jews do call Him: Allah-im.  Aramaic-speaking people also call GOD Almighty Allah.  See the following videos for Biblical references and proofs.  Also, pre-Islamic Biblical archeological findings have GOD Almighty as "Allah".  So the Original Holy Name for GOD Almighty is not Eloh.  It is Allah!  Eloh is a Hebrew dialect, which not all Hebrew speakers use anyway.  Allah had always been the Original and Universal GOD Almighty even before birth of Judaism, and the existence Hebrew.  And Hebrew is a developed language from Phoenician.  See the following links:

               
           (Click to play videos)

           http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phoenician_alphabet
           http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biblical_Hebrew

         

    New Addition:

    From http://www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php/topic,1346.msg5127.html#msg5127:

    ASSALAM ALYKAM

    when ever i am in  a debate christians always quote me this

    1 John 2:18-27
    English Standard Version (ESV)
    Warning Concerning Antichrists

    18 Children, it is the last hour, and as you have heard that antichrist is coming, so now many antichrists have come. Therefore we know that it is the last hour. 19 They went out from us, but they were not of us; for if they had been of us, they would have continued with us. But they went out, that it might become plain that they all are not of us. 20 But you have been anointed by the Holy One, and you all have knowledge.[a] 21 I write to you, not because you do not know the truth, but because you know it, and because no lie is of the truth. 22 Who is the liar but he who denies that Jesus is the Christ? This is the antichrist, he who denies the Father and the Son. 23 No one who denies the Son has the Father. Whoever confesses the Son has the Father also. 24 Let what you heard from the beginning abide in you. If what you heard from the beginning abides in you, then you too will abide in the Son and in the Father. 25 And this is the promise that he made to us
     
     

    Does Muhammad (pbuh) deny Jesus being the messiah?

    Does the prophet Muhammad deny the existence of God and God's servant Jesus?
     
      
    As'salamu Alaikum dear brothers,

    Notice here how Messiah was defined by the author of the 1 John book to be "Father and Son".  Islam does not deny that Jesus is the Christ, nor does the Holy Quran deny that the Jews and Christians were called sons of GOD.  The problem is that, like every exaggerated religion out there, the "Son of GOD" title became ridiculous over-blown.  This is one of the many things that Islam came to straighten out from the corruption of the Jews and Christians.

    Son of GOD in the Bible means Servant of GOD.  This is a fact that no Jew or Christian could deny.  And the Servant is not just any servant.  He is a servant "raised to Honor" as the Holy Quran puts it.  That's what son of GOD means.  Taking it beyond this is bordering polytheism and blasphemy.  Please visit: 

    http://www.answering-christianity.com/1john2_22.htm

    Similarly, in Judaism, Idolatry is considered Spiritual Adultery against GOD Almighty.  Now I want you to think about this for a second.  Are we married to Allah Almighty?  Absolutely not.  Yet, it is considered spiritual adultery?  Similarly, if you take this beyond metaphor, and start speaking nonsense about you are married with GOD Almighty, then you would be bordering blasphemy.

    The liar in the 1 John verses, and I am not saying that they are divine or original or authentic in anyway, is one who denies Jesus is the Messiah.  We do not deny that Jesus is the Messiah.  Therefore, this title would not apply to us.  But the title is messed up anyway.  How could you be a liar even if you don't believe Jesus was the Messiah??  Again, another metaphor that doesn't mean anything actual.  What is it that you're lying about??  It's like one saying if you're not hindu, then you're a thief!  What kind of a stupid statement is that??

    Again, Islam came to fix this stupidity and put an end to it.  The blasphemies and stupidity stop with Islam!  That's the bottom line, my beloveds.

    And last and not least, please visit: http://www.answering-christianity.com/authors_gospels.htm.  In this article, you'll see that the books of John:

    1-  Were written by unknown people.
    2-  Do contain alterations and man-made injections in them.
    3-  Were written by an unknown number of men.
    4-  Were written in unknown places.
    5-  Were written in unknown dates.

    Here is an example:

    We find even more alarming troubles with the Gospel of John itself.  Since Christians believe that the writer of the gospel of John is the same one as the one who wrote 1 John, then it is important to point out the following absurdity in the authenticity of this gospel from its last and concluding chapter:

    John 21:24-25
    24 This is the disciple (WHICH DISCIPLE??  WHAT IS HIS NAME??) who testifies to these things and who wrote them down. We know that his testimony is true (HOW DO YOU KNOW??  DID YOU EVEN MEET HIM IN PERSON??)
    25 Jesus did many other things as well. If every one of them were written down, I suppose that even the whole world would not have room for the books that would be written.

    Many have doubted that John even wrote the entire book:

    "Many scholars of the past two centuries have denied that John wrote this book, partly because of their belief that the author fabricated many details such as the miracles and the discourses of Jesus.  (The Holman Illustrated Study Bible, ISBN: 978-1-58640-275-4, Gospel of John, Page1540)"

    For ample more quotes from several other Bible commentaries, again, please visit: http://www.answering-christianity.com/authors_gospels.htm.

    Now here is some analysis:

    "We know that his testimony is true"?!

    Wasn't the disciple John the one who supposedly wrote the gospel of John?  How can he say about himself that "we know that his (the author) testimony is true"?!  Isn't this a clear and indisputable proof that the book was written by an unknown person?

    I hope this helps, insha'Allah.  
      
      
    Osama Abdallah's Post:

    And by the way, I know that what I just wrote was actually all written by mclinkin94, because somebody had just told me so!  I know it.  Don't question it!  I was just told that the post wasn't written by me!  Even if it has my name on it, and was written using my account.  It doesn't matter.  mclinkin94 wrote it.  I was just told that.  I don't remember if whether I actually wrote it or not.  But I know whoever wrote it, his testimony is true.  Somebody told me so.

    Now of course, brother mclinkin94 didn't write my post.  But the point I am making here is that with this statement uttered by Osama Abdallah, do you see just how stupid and incompetent, and even a liar (if not mentally retarded), Osama Abdallah is??  This is all hypothetical of course :).

    This kind of lies and retardedness and stupidity exist by the bulk in the Bible!

    Everyone is supposedly inspired by GOD Almighty in the Bible, and all of their words are Divine Revelations.  Yet, we find fights among the disciples, where Peter and other disciples were called "clearly in the wrong", and Paul was called a "false apostle" by several of the disciples and believers.  I've went through this in my debate at: http://www.answering-christianity.com/is_the_bible_the_true_word_of_god_june_16_2013.wmv.

    Take care,
    Osama Abdallah

      

    First of all, neither one of those verses suggest that the mentioned groups are liars or false.  Second of all, the 1 John and 2 John books you mentioned were written by mysterious authors.  No one is even sure that they were written by Saint John himself!

    From www.answering-christianity.com/authors_gospels.htm

    The Gospel of 1 John:

    "....Unlike most NT letters, 1 John does not tell us who its author is.  The earliest identification of him comes from the church fathers...(From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1904)"

    "The letter is difficult to date with precision....(From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1905)"

    This is really ironic! with all respect due to Christians.  If the Book's author is not for sure known, then why assume that it was Saint John who wrote it?

    Please visit The lie of 1 John 5:7.  This verse was later discovered to be a Satanic lie.  The Roman Catholic Theologians don't believe in it, and it doesn't exist in their Bibles.

    The same case where no author is really known exists in the Gospels of 2 and 3 John.

     

    He wrote:

    25- The Koran says in 4:157, that God causes someone who looked like Jesus to die on the cross in his place, therefore tricking the apostles of Christ into thinking he was crucified. My question is: how can you escape the fact that the rise of Christianity to the largest religion in the world is ultimately the result of the divine action of Allah?

     

    My response:

    Empires rise an fall, including the pagan ones.  I could tell you the same thing about Islam being a Divine Religion, because it started by one individual, and it spread from the borders of France all the way to the borders of China.  Would that prove that Islam is Truthful also?  You can't use this kind of argument to prove the truth or falsity of a religion.

    Also, the Noble Quran does not say anything about decieving the disciples of Jesus.   Allah Almighty only made it appear that Jesus got crucified to the Jews and Romans.   But since the gospels of the NT were written as I mentioned above 150 to 300 years after Jesus, it is impossible to know what the real disciples saw and wrote.

    Here is what the Noble Quran says:

    From www.answering-christianity.com/isaiah_53.htm

    Let us look at the following Noble Verse from the Noble Quran (The Muslims Holy Scripture): "That they rejected Faith; That they uttered against Mary A grave false charge;  That they said (in boast):  'We killed Christ Jesus The son of Mary, The Messenger of Allah.'  But they killed him not, Nor crucified him, but so it was made to appear to them, and those who differ therein are full of doubts, with no (certain) knowledge, but only conjecture to follow, for of a surety they killed him not.  Nay, Allah raised him up Unto Himself; and Allah Is Exalted in Power, Wise.  And there is none of the people of the book (Jews and Christians) But must believe in him  (Jesus) Before his death; And on the Day of Judgment He (Jesus) will be a witness Against them.   (The Noble Quran, 4:156-159)"  

    Now compare the Noble Verses to Isaiah 52:13 "...he will be raised and lifted up....".   Notice that Isaiah 52:13 did not say "....he will be RESURRECTED and lifted up...."  Not even once, did the Old Testament predict for the foretold Servant (Jesus) to be raised to GOD Almighty after death.  There absolutely no mention of any sort of resurrection in the Bible's Old Testament what so ever.

    Also, "...he will be raised and lifted up...." seems to suggest that Jesus will be picked up right from the cross, or saved right from the cross by Allah Almighty.  "raised and lifted" seems to suggest that Jesus will not die, nor get crucified, but rather be raised and lifted by GOD Almighty to Heavens.


    It just seems odd to see both words "raised" and "lifted", and not just one of them, in Isaiah 52:13, and yet think that they agree with the fabricated crucifixion story about Jesus in the NT. 

    Why did GOD Almighty choose to say "raised" and "lifted" in Isaiah 52:13?


    The very next verse also refutes the current New Testament:

    It appears that Isaiah 52:14 "Just as there were many who were appalled at him - his appearance was so disfigured beyond that of any man and his form marred beyond human likeness-" further proves Islam's claims about Jesus peace be upon him never got crucified on the cross, because if Jesus was so badly disfigured beyond any human imagination, then this means his physical appearance (face and body) afterwards might have been very confusing to the people.   In other words, people might not be able to recognize him, HENCE, THIS MIGHT CAUSE FOR ANOTHER PERSON TO HAVE BEEN PUT ON THE CROSS INSTEAD OF HIM (JESUS).


    According to what we have in the New Testament, Jesus was never "disfigured.....beyond human likeness"!  Jesus in the New Testament of today was NEVER DISFIGURED!

    And certainly, the crucifixion does not cause for the person, NOR DID IT CAUSE FOR JESUS IN THE NEW TESTAMENT, to be disfigured beyond any human recognition!


    According to Islam, Jesus peace be upon him might have been put on the cross and might have got "pierced", but he never died.  According to Islam, he was raised to Allah Almighty and saved from death.  We Muslims believe that Prophet Jesus peace be upon him will come back again to earth and fight the army of Satan and defeat it, and then the Judgment Day will come.   According to Islam, every person (including Jesus) must taste death (The Noble Quran, 44:56). 

    Which ever possibility is correct, whether it was another person got crucified, or Jesus himself was put on the cross and never got crucified, the claim of Islam is still supported by the Bible in either case as we clearly saw above in both Isaiah 52:13 and 52:14.

    Please visit the article Did Jesus get crucified according to Islam?

    The point is that Chapter Isaiah 53 agrees a lot more with Islam's claims than with the current Christianity's claims, and it is confirmed in Isaiah 52:13.

    There are several other Noble Verses in the Noble Quran that talk about Jesus such as the following:

    "So peace is upon me [Jesus] the day I was born, the day that I die, and the day that I shall be raised up to life.  (The Noble Quran, 19:33)"

    To see detailed explanation of this Noble Verse and about Jesus peace be upon him in Islam, please visit the following links:

    Does the Noble Quran in Verse 19:33 confirm Jesus' crucifixion?

    Ask me any question section.   See responses to many questions about Jesus in Islam.

     

    He wrote:

    26- The deity of Jesus is affirmed four times in Hebrews chapter 1. Jesus Christ is called the son of God, worshiped by Angels, called God by the Father and stated to be the creator. Given the fact that you would say that this is a textual corruption of the original gospel message, my question is would you not agree that this corrupted text does indeed call Jesus God?

     

    My response:

    These topics that you raised had been all refuted in great details at:

    The "God" title in the Bible was given to others in the OT and NT.

    Do People and Angels bowing down to Jesus in Worship really prove that he is the Creator of the Universe?  See how the word "Worship" used for Jesus doesn't even exist in the original Greek Bibles.  The Trinitarian English translations are nothing but hoaxes and deceptions.  The article responds to Matthew 15:9 and other English mistranslated verses in the Bible.

    The absolute Oneness of GOD Almighty in the Bible's Old Testament.

    Texts referring to GOD as "One, Alone, None Other, None Else".

    Principles of Bible Interpretation about GOD Almighty.

    The word "LORD" in the Bible referring to the Almighty GOD alone.

    The word "Elohim" proves Trinity?

    More on absolute Oneness of GOD Almighty in the Bible's Old Testament.

     

    He wrote:

    27- The Islamic religion teaches that Jesus Christ was a practicing Muslim. My question is: is this any less ridiculous than if Christians said Muhammad was a practicing Buddhist?

     

    My response:

    The definition of a "Muslim" is one who believes in the Absolute One True Living GOD Almighty.  Islam ended with Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him, and it didn't start with him.  Islam started with Adam peace be upon him.  Look at these three sets of Verses from the Bible's OT, NT and from the Noble Quran:

    "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is one.  (From the NIV Bible, Deuteronomy 6:4)"

    "The most important one," answered Jesus, "is this: 'Hear, O Israel, the Lord our God, the Lord is one.  (From the NIV Bible, Mark 12:29)"

    "Say: He is God, the One and Only; God, the Eternal, Absolute; He begetteth not, nor is He begotten; And there is none like unto Him.  (The Noble Quran, 112:1-4)"

    Again, please visit: The absolute Oneness of GOD Almighty in the Bible's Old Testament.

    Texts referring to GOD as "One, Alone, None Other, None Else".

    Also, please visit: What is the Wisdom of Islam?

     

    He wrote:

    28- Muslim's claim that Isaiah 42 is a prophecy of Muhammad. Yet Isaiah 53 is one of the foremost prophecies of the crucifixion of Christ in the entire Old Testament. My question is: on what basis do you feel Isaiah 42 is uncorrupted which prophecies Muhammad, but Isaiah 53 is corrupted that prophesies the crucifixion of Christ?

     

    My response:

    I have addressed Isaiah 42 and the clear prophecy of the Arabian Prophet at: Isaiah 42-54 seem to predict Islam and the removal of GOD Almighty's Covenant from the people of Israel.

    I have also addressed Isaiah 53 at: Did Isaiah 53 really prophesies about the crucifixion of Jesus? It supports Islam's claims about Jesus peace be upon him never died on the cross.  I also addressed John 19:36-37 from the Bible and proved that Jesus never got crucified, since GOD Almighty promised that he will protect Jesus' body and not let even a single bone be broken.  My question to all Christians is: How in the world is it possible for the feet to get nailed on the cross without any penetration to the bones by the nails, hence breaking part of the feet's bones?! I also added refutations to Exodus 12:46, Numbers 9:12, Zechariah 12:10 and Psalm 34:20, which supposedly prove the Christians' belief about Jesus crucifixion.  I proved that this dogma has no truth what so ever and exposed the wrong Trinitarian English translation of Zechariah 12:10.

    Also, please visit: What parts of the Bible do Muslims believe are closest to the Truth? and Why?

     

    He wrote:

    29- My question is: If you feel the Bible is so corrupted, than why do you quote Deut 18:18 and John 16:13 as uncorrupted prophecies of Muhammad’s comment in the sixth century AD.

     

    My response:

    Again, please visit: What parts of the Bible do Muslims believe are closest to the Truth? and Why?

     

    He wrote:

    30- Acts 19:23-41 mentions a religion that worshipped the great goddess Artemis and her meteorite which fell down from heaven. Taking note that this religion centered around a meteorite, my question is: is it possible that this is a pagan corruption of the Black Stone and meteorite that fell at the foot of Adam and that at the time of Christ the Black Stone was actually in Ephesus Asia minor?

     

    My response:

    Since Islam claimed otherwise, then it is not possible.  If you then ask me how do I know that Islam is the Divine Truth from GOD Almighty?  I would answer you: Because while all of the other religions' Miracles died when their Prophets died or left (such as splitting the sea in half, raising the dead and curing the blind), the Noble Quran's Miracle is an inner and Everlasting one.  The Noble Quran's Miracle lives in it and will continue living in it till the Day of Judgement. 

    Here is a detailed section of the Noble Quran's Miracles:

     

    www.answering-christianity.com/sci_quran.htm:

     

     

     

    He wrote:

    31- Galatians 1:6-9 Apostle Paul says "I am amazed that you are so quickly deserting Christ for a different religion. But even if an angel from heaven, should preach to you a different religion, let him be accursed." My question is: Do you think it possible that this is a genuine text from God and he foresaw that both Muhammad and Joseph Smith would be taught a new religion by an angel?

     

    My response:

    First of all, Paul never met Jesus in person.  He wasn't from among Jesus' disciples.  Also, Islam had proven itself to be the Divine Truth from GOD Almighty by the Miracles I've shown you above, and many more that I am not aware of as yet.  Paul can say anything he wants, but it doesn't mean much to us Muslims.

    Please visit: Famous Theologians and Historians believe that Paul was not truthful.

    How can you say that the Bible has corruption in it when Saint Paul in 2 Timothy 3:16 clearly said that "All Scripture is God-breathed"?

    Paul, Peter and John are in clear contradiction with each others regarding the disbelieving husbands to believing wives!

    Is circumcision allowed or not allowed in the Bible?  See the clear contradiction between Jesus and Paul.

    Paul contradicted himself regarding the women's head covering.

    My response to Sam Shamoun's rebuttal to my article "Paul, Peter and John are in clear contradiction with each others regarding the disbelieving husbands to believing wives!".

     

    He wrote:

    32- Before the discovery of the dead sea scrolls in 1947 the earliest copy of the Old Testament was the Massoretic Text dated at 1000 AD. The dead sea scrolls are dated at 100 B.C. contain 19 copies of Isaiah, 25 copies of Deuteronomy and 30 copies of Psalms that are virtually identical to what we have in our Bible's today. My question is: since you believe the Old Testament was corrupted long before the dead sea scrolls were written in 100 B.C., will you at least admit that there has been no further corruption of the Old Testament since 100 B.C. right down to the present?

     

    My response:

    Just because you found some letters written by mysterious people, it doesn't mean anything.  I was told by many Christians that the New Testament's 60 or more books (depending on which bible you're using) were picked out from 24,000 "false ones".  Well, my question to you here is: How do you know that the 24,000 false ones were false, and assuming that the NT is truthful for a second, how do you know that there weren't more Truthful ones that were discarded?

    For more details, please visit: My detailed rebuttal to a Christian rebuttal about Muhammad was foretold by Jesus.  I addressed all of their rebuttal points and refuted them.  The article also talks about the 24,000 books that the current Bible's 66 books came from, and how that makes the current 66 chosen books extremely unreliable and doubtful.

     

    He wrote:

    33- In Jude 3; 2 Peter 1:3; John 16:13 and 2 Tim 3:16 the Bible is called an all sufficient book with no need for anything else in regards to how we live our lives or worship God. You claim the same thing for the Qur'an. My question is: how can the Qur'an be all sufficient in our worship of Allah, if it does not even mention something as important as praying five times a day and does this not prove that the Koran without the Hadith is like a car without an engine?

     

    My response:

    In Islam, we follow the laws of the Noble Quran, and the Sayings of Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him.  If a situation or case is not addressed in neither the Noble Quran, or the Sayings of our beloved Prophet, then we follow the local verdicts of our Religious Authorities, where they would decide based upon the cultural and social situation and causes.

    Allah Almighty said in the Noble Quran:

    "O ye who believe! Obey God, and obey the Apostle, and those charged with authority among you. If ye differ in anything among yourselves, refer it to God and His Apostle, if ye do believe in God and the Last Day: That is best, and most suitable for final determination.  (The Noble Quran, 4:59)"

    "When there comes to them some matter touching (Public) safety or fear, they divulge it. If they had only referred it to the Apostle, or to those charged with authority among them, the proper investigators would have Tested it from them (direct). Were it not for the Grace and Mercy of God unto you, all but a few of you would have fallen into the clutches of Satan.  (The Noble Quran, 4:83)"

    All of the Hadiths that refer directly to Noble Verses in the Noble Quran, or talk about topics that exist in the Noble Quran are valid ones.  Allah Almighty in the Noble Quran is mostly concerned with the belief in Him.  He, the Almighty for His Own Divine Purpose, decided to let the Hadiths do the explanation of some Noble Verses.

    But the point is, it is part of the Noble Quran to follow the Hadiths. 

     

    He wrote:

    34- The Huleatt Manuscript was written in 50 AD and is actually a prayer addressed to Jesus and calls Jesus "God". Therefore, Christians have in their possession archeological inscriptions within 20 years of Christ’s resurrection that say he is God. My question is: Do you know of any archeological inscription dated within 100 years of Muhammad's death where he is called a prophet? If so, please name it.

     

    My response:

    Again, please visit: The "God" title in the Bible was given to others in the OT and NT.  Also, there is a difference between "Lord" and "God".   "Lord" means leader or master; a description that fits well with the Jews' Messiah.  But no where in the OT do we see any suggestion that the Jews' Messiah is the Creator of the Universe.

    As to the archeological evidence, I have a similar archeological evidence that suggest that the Name of GOD Almighty in the Bible was indeed "Allah" long before Muhammad was born.  Please visit: Jewish and Christian Arabs used the word "Allah" for GOD before Islam.  See archeological evidence and most recent discoveries in the Middle East.

     

    He wrote:

    35- The Bible contains over 60 distinct prophecies of Jesus Christ 1000 years before hand. My question is: what is the single most remarkable prophecy that Muhammad made that was fulfilled?

     

    My response:

    I won't give you one.  I'll give you many that I was able to gather so far:

    From www.answering-christianity.com/quran.htm

    Pharaoh's body was saved and not lost in the drowning as Allah Almighty promised in the Noble Quran.  See the image of the discovered body of Pharoah.

    The Prophecy of the yearly pilgrimage to Mecca in the Noble Quran.

    The appearance of the splitting of the moon in half was witnessed by many Muslims.

    What are the Signs of the Hour?

    The People of Gog and Magog and the End of Times Battles.  Read the "The "Chosen People?" of GOD, the End of Times and Gog and Magog" section.

    Was Hitler's Holocaust against the Jews prophesied in Islam?

    Did Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him really claim that he knew when the Day of Judgement will come?

    Prophecies from Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him.

    Quran's correct prophecy of defeat of Romans.

    Prophet Muhammad's claim about the 360 joints in the human body was proven to be true!

    Scientists confirm Islam's claims about Adam was 90 feet tall.

    Evidence from the Quran that Allah Almighty created the People (Children) of Adam through Cloning.   (html backup).  Another STUNNING Scientific Claim from Islam.

    Were cloning, human-cloning, and gender alteration prophesied in Islam?

    Alteration of Creation Prophecy:

    Allah Almighty quoted satan telling Him, the Almighty, in the Glorious Quran the following:

    4:119 ولاضلنهم ولامنينهم ولامرنهم فليبتكن اذان الانعام ولامرنهم فليغيرن خلق الله ومن يتخذ الشيطان وليا من دون الله فقد خسر خسرانا مبينا

    [004:119]  and (1) will lead them astray ولاضلنهمand (2) will stir desires within them ولامنينهمand (3) will command them ولامرنهم and (4) they shall cut the ears of animals فليبتكن اذان الانعامand (5) I will command them ولامرنهم to alter the creation of God فليغيرن خلق الله ." He who taketh Satan rather than God for his patron, is ruined with palpable ruin:

    Satan in the five different commands will:

    1-  Lead astray.
    2-  Stir desires.
    3-  Will command the evil ones.
    4-  They will cut the animals' ears.
    5-  Then proceed to alter the creation of GOD Almighty.

      
    Notice the fifth "and":

    (5) and I will command them ولامرنهم  to alter the creation of God فليغيرن خلق الله ."

      

    No animal or idol worship here:

    Idol worship is of course a sin in Islam, but notice in this particular promise of satan to alter Allah Almighty's creations does not include idol worship here.  Iblis, who was mighty and powerful, became very angry from Allah Almighty for having Allah Almighty Command all Beings in the World of Command to bow to the new flesh and blood creation, Adam, peace be upon him and upon all of GOD Almighty's pious creations.  So satan (Iblis) promised Allah Almighty to have these humans, whom Allah was so proud  of, to alter Allah Almighty's creations to prove to Allah that this new flesh and blood creation of His is nothing.

    Slitting of animal ears alone do not alter the creation of Allah Almighty, nor does it alter the creation of the slit animal either.  These is no alteration in creation in just slitting ears.  Besides, humans are known to eat animals anyway.  And the Noble Verse is not talking about animal or idol worship here.  It is only talking about having the creations of Allah Almighty being altered by humans after the slitting of animals' ears.

    Satan's big battle with GOD Almighty is to cause so much evil, among them is to "cut the cattle's ears and to alter the creation of Allah" (4:119), i.e., cloning (as this is how it began today) [1]

    Transgenders also began after Dolly the sheep's cloning.  LGBT (lesbian, gay, bisexual, and transgender) are covered below in this article.  Today they're even researching making males get pregnant, or at least plant fertilized female eggs inside them and grow the fetuses into babies.

      

    Cloning began with the animals' ears:

    The alteration of Allah Almighty's creations indeed began with the cutting of the animals' ears and extracting the necessary somatic cells from them.  Dolly the sheep was the first creation to ever be cloned:

    "Dolly was a female domestic sheep, and the first mammal cloned from an adult somatic cell, using the process of nuclear transfer." (Source)

    "...but somatic cells from ear clippings will be much easier to obtain and are therefore preferable."  (Source, 2, pdf)

    Ample more quotes are below in this article.

      

    Evidence that Allah Almighty created the People of Adam through Cloning in the Glorious Quran.  (html backup).  Cloning is mentioned in multiple places in the Glorious Quran [1], and is one of the End of Times Prophecies as well.  Cloning is definitely NOT a foreign concept in the Glorious Quran.

    Please visit:

  • The Overwhelming Numerical and Scientific Miracles in the Glorious Quran.
  • The Quran's and Islam's Amazing Prophecies.
  •   

    Sex determination was explained in good details by Prophet Muhammad 1400 years ago.

    The recently found city of "Imad" or "Iram" was only mentioned in the Noble Quran.

    The corruptions and infidel dictatorships in the Muslim world today were prophesized by Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him.

    Prophet Muhammad predicted the coming of the "dictators" and bad leaders.

    Were human cloning and gender alteration prophesied in Islam?

     

    Miracles:

    Scientific Miracles in the Noble Quran and Islam.

     

    He wrote:

    36- Muslim's believe the Bible is corrupted. Yet in Isa 40:22 and three other passages. (Prov 8:27; Amos 9:6 Job 26:10) it says the earth is round and not flat. Job 26:7 says the earth is free-floating in space: "he hangs the earth on nothing." Both these facts are scientifically accurate, and revealed in the Bible long before man discovered it for himself. My question is: Are these passages scientifically accurate corruption's?

     

    My response:

    We Muslims as I explained above believe that the Bible contains Truth in it.  However, the Bible in general suggests that the earth is a flat disc hanging on pillars that prevent it from "shaking". 

    Please visit: The Bible claims that the earth is flat.

    The Noble Quran confirms that the earth is rotating around itself.

    Allah Almighty said that the earth is "egg-shaped".

    The Earth is round according to Islam.

    The amazing creation of earth and iron in the Noble Quran.   Iron came from space, and the Noble Quran mentioned it.

    The amazing creation of earth and mountains in the Noble Quran.   Science confirms that mountains prevent the earth from shaking while it is revolving around itself.  The Noble Quran made a similar claim.

    Geology in the Noble Quran - See the Scientific confirmation.

    Oceanology in the Noble Quran - See the Scientific confirmation.  The barriers between waters in both science and the Noble Quran.

    The darkness of oceans and disappearance of light was mentioned in the Noble Quran and confirmed by Science.

     

    He wrote:

    37- Muslims proudly quote several passages in the Koran 30:48; 24:43, as scientifically accurate explanations of the hydrologic water cycle. My question is: given the fact the Bible had already fully documented the hydrologic water cycle 1600 before the Koran in Job 36:27-28, and 3 other passages (Eccl 11:3; Job 26:8; Eccl 1:6-7), doesn't this proof Muhammad merely copied the scientific facts of the hydrologic water cycle directly from the Bible? (Clouds hold water: Eccl 11:3; Job 26:8; Rivers recycle water: Eccl 1:6-7; Evapouration: Amos 9:6)

     

    My response:

    Here are Noble Verses 30:48 and 24:43 from the Noble Quran:

    "It is God Who sends the Winds, and they raise the Clouds: then does He spread them in the sky as He wills, and break them into fragments, until thou seest rain-drops issue from the midst thereof: then when He has made them reach such of his servants as He wills behold, they do rejoice!-  (The Noble Quran, 30:48)"

    "Seest thou not that God makes the clouds move gently, then joins them together, then makes them into a heap? - then wilt thou see rain issue forth from their midst. And He sends down from the sky mountain masses (of clouds) wherein is hail: He strikes therewith whom He pleases and He turns it away from whom He pleases, the vivid flash of His lightning well-nigh blinds the sight.  (The Noble Quran, 24:43)"

    While the points in these Noble Verses might exist in the Bible, this still does not prove anything against Islam.  Islam as I showed above, had ample scientific Miracles that did not exist in the bible.  I have also shown above that the bible contains scientific errors in it.

     

    He wrote:

    38- The 66 books of the Bible were written by 40 different men over a period of 1600 years with multiple threads of unified themes that span cover to cover. My question is: would you not agree that in contrast to the Bible, that the Qur'an is a jumble of disjointed material, without order, continuity or unity of any kind?

     

    My response:

    Your 66 books of the bible were not written by 40 different men.  No one even knows who wrote these books!  Here is a sample of what the NIV Bible's theologians and historians wrote:

    "Serious doubts exists as to whether these verses belong to the Gospel of Mark.  They are absent from important early manuscripts and display certain peculiarities of vocabulary, style and theological content that are unlike the rest of Mark.  His Gospel probably ended at 16:8, or its original ending has been lost.  (From the NIV Bible Foot Notes, page 1528)"

    "Although the author does not name himself, evidence outside the Scriptures and inferences from the book itself lead to the conclusion that the author was Luke.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1643)"

    "The writer of this letter does not identify himself, but he was obviously well known to the original recipients.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1856)"

    "The letter is difficult to date with precision....(From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1905)"

    "It seems safe to conclude that the book, at least in its early form, dates from the beginning of the monarchy. Some think that Samuel may have had a hand in shaping or compiling the materials of the book, but in fact we are unsure who the final author or editor was.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 286)"

    "Although, according to tradition, Samuel wrote the book, authorship is actually uncertain.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 322)"

    "The date of the composition is also unknown, but it was undoubtedly during the monarchy.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 322)"

    "The author is unknown. Jewish tradition points to Samuel, but it is unlikely that he is the author because the mention of David (4:17,22) implies a later date.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 360)"

    "Who the author was cannot be known with certainty since the book itself gives no indication of his identity.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 368)"

    "There is little conclusive evidence as to the identity of the author of 1,2 Kings.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 459)"

    "Whoever the author was, it is clear that he was familiar with the book of Deuteronomy.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 459)"

    "According to ancient Jewish tradition, Ezra wrote Chronicles, Ezra and Nehemiah (see Introduction to Ezra: Literary Form and Authorship), but this cannot be established with certainty.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 569)"

    "Although we do not know who wrote the book of Esther, from internal evidence it is possible to make some inferences about the author and the date of composition.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 707)"

    "The unknown author probably had access to oral and/or written sources....(From the NIV Bible commentary, page 722)"

    "Regarding authorship, opinions are even more divided....(From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 773)"

    etc...

    Allah Almighty made no error when He claimed that the Bible was corrupted by men.   The bible had proven itself to be self contradicting and full of historical errors and corruptions. 

     

    The different "Canons" of the Bible!

    Different and conflicting variations of "gospels" and "books" that are disagreed upon by the Churches today.

     

     

    Let us look at the following samples:

    Consider the following few examples that consist of historical contradictions in the Bible:

    II Samuel 10:18 talks about David slew the men of 700 chariots of the Syrians and 40,000 horsemen and Shobach the commander.
    I Chronicles 1:18 says that David slew the men of 7000 chariots and 40,000 footmen

    I Chronicles 9:25 says that Solomon had 4000 stalls for horses and chariots.
    I Kings 4:26 says that he had 40,000 stalls for horses

    Ezra 2:5 talks about an exile Arah having 775 sons.
    Nehemiah 7:10 talks about the same exile Arah having 652 sons.

    II Samuel 24:13 So God came to David, and told him, and said unto him, shall SEVEN YEARS OF FAMINE come unto thee in thy land? or will thou flee three months before thine enemies, while they pursue. thee?
    I Chronicles 21:11 SO God came to David, and said unto him, Thus saith the LORD, Choose thee. Either THREE YEARS OF FAMINE or three months to be destryed before thy foes, while that the sword of thine enemies overtaketh thee;

    How did Judas die?
    "And he cast down the pieces of silver into the temple and departed, and went out and hanged himself." (Matthew 27:5)
    "And falling headlong, he burst asunder in the midst, and all of his bowels gushed out." (Acts 1:18)

    2 Samuel 6:23 Therefore MICHAL the daughter of Saul had no child unto the day of her death.
    2 Samuel 21:8 But the king took the two sons of Rizpah the daughter of Aiah, whom she bare unto Saul, Armoni and Mephibosheth; and the five sons of MICHAL the daughter of Saul, whom she brought up for Adriel the son of Barzillai the Meholathite.

    2 Kings 24:8 Jehoiachin was eighteen years old when he began to reign, and he reigned in Jerusalem three months. And his mother's name was Nehushta, the daughter of Elnathan of Jerusalem.
    2 Chronicles 36:9 Jehoiachin was eight years old when he began to reign, and he reigned three months and ten days in Jerusalem: and he did that which was evil in the sight of the LORD.

    26th year of the reign of Asa I Kings 16:6-8
    36th year of the reign of Asa I 2 Chronicles 16:1

    How old was Ahaziah when he began to reign?
    22 in 2 Kings 8:26
    42 in 2 Chronicle 22:2

    Who was Josiah's successor?
    Jehoahaz - 2 Chronicle 36:1
    Shallum - Jeremiah 22:11

    Also, your original scriptures are all doubtful according to the Bible's own theologians and historians.  It's quite hellarious that even the Bible itself admits that it has been tampered with and corrupted by man's garbage:

    "`How can you say, "We [the Jews] are wise, for we have the law of the LORD," when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?' (From the NIV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"

    The Revised Standard Version makes it even clearer: "How can you say, 'We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us'? But, behold, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie(From the RSV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"

    How do you respond to this?


    Please visit: Just who were the original authors of the Bible? to see the book's bibliography to the above quotes.

    Also, why don't you visit: Contradictions and proofs of Historical Corruptions in the Bible, and see exactly what I mean, instead of acting like a total fool and saying things that even the Bible refutes in it!

     

    He wrote:

    39- Muslims authorities refuse to release photographs of the ancient Topkapi manuscript in Istanbul, one of the three oldest Korans in existence. My question is: do you have any idea why Muslim authorities refuse to release documentary photographs of the Topkapi manuscript in Istanbul and what they are afraid for the world to see?

     

    My response:

    What?!  And how do you know that they refuse to release photographs of the anceint Topkapi manuscripts?  Also, the original Arabic scripts of the Noble Quran exist in the Saudi Arabia, not in Turkey.  While Turkey does have ancient copies, but Saudi Arabia has the original copies.

     

    He wrote:

    40- Muslims have repeatedly claimed that Muslim women have more rights in Islam then Western women do in the civilized world. The proof you supplied with the fact that Islam gave women the right to vote 1400 years ago but women in the West only got the right to vote 100 years ago. My question is: would you please name one country in the world today that is ruled by a Islamic "Shariah" law where women are permitted to vote?

     

    My response:

    Most of the Muslim countries today are ruled by dicatorships.  Dicators don't represent Islam.  That is why there is no democracy today in the Islamic world.   This however was Prophecied by Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him.

    Please visit: The corruptions and infidel dictatorships in the Muslim world today were prophesized by Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him.

    Prophet Muhammad predicted the coming of the "dictators" and bad leaders.

     

    He wrote:

    41- Muslim's claim that their growth rate is 235 percent and 47 percent for Christianity. This statistic came from the Readers Digest Almanac and Yearbook 1983, and represents 235 percent increase over 50 years. A simple review of the readers Digest study shows that the growth rate of Islam vs. Christianity is directly linked to the birth rate in Third World countries where Islam dominates and not actual conversions to each religion. My question is: do you have any more recent statistics on an annualized basis?

     

    My response:

    The last I heard on CNN was "Islam is the fastest growing Religion in the West".  I don't have statistics and I don't care about statistics either.

     

    He wrote:

    42- Muslims claim that Jesus prayed using the Muslim prayer posture, along with all the prophets. Yet Jesus instructed his disciples to pray while standing up. (Mark 11:25), King David prayed while sitting in (2 Sam 7:18), and Paul instructed prayer in church with hands lifted up in the air. (1 Tim 2:8) My question is: If Jesus was a Muslim, why would he instruct his disciples to pray standing up? And when it says Jesus fell on his face and prayed, how do you know he was not fully prostrate?

     

    My response:

    I have addressed all of this in details at: Jesus is a hypocrite for bowing down to GOD only during his desperate times. See another proof in the Bible that Jesus can not be the Creator of the Universe.

     

    He wrote:

    43- Muslims claim that Muhammad always worshipped Allah in a 100% correct way, without the need for any restoral. My question is: If this is true, then why did Muhammad pray towards Jerusalem for the first 5 years of his prophethood, and later redirected his prays towards Mecca? And did Jesus pray towards Mecca 5 times a towards Jerusalem or Mecca?

     

    My response:

    To my knowledge, when the Kaaba was full of idols under the authority of the pagans, the Prophet peace be upon him was directing the Prayers toward the Farthest Mosque (Al-Masjid Al-Aqsa) in Jerusalem.  But later when Muslims conquered Mecca, and cleansed the Kaaba from the pagan idols, the Muslims started praying toward the Kaaba.

    Please visit: The story of the 10,000 Muslims who liberated Mecca (Paran) in the Bible.

    The emigration of the Muslims to Madina was foretold in the Bible.

    Pilgrimage of Ezekiel to Mecca.

    See the Proof that "Paran" in the Bible is "Mecca".  Paran in the Bible is Mecca today - See the Archeological discoveries that prove Mount Sinai is in Saudi Arabia.

    Muhammad in the Bible; Standing upon Mount Arafat.

     

    He wrote:

    44- The Bible defines a miracle as something that defies the laws of nature. Muslims claim the Koran is a miracle merely because it was allegedly transmitted perfectly without alteration and flaw till the second coming. Since the Harry Potter books will certainly be transmitted perfectly without alteration or flaw, and be around until the second coming, my question is: does this make the Harry Potter books a miracle like the Koran?

     

    My response:

    As I explained above, the Noble Quran's Miracle is an inner and Everlasting one.   All of the Miracles of the Prophets died when the Prophets died or left.  We no longer see splitting the sea in half, creating snakes by wooden sticks, raising the dead and curing the blind any more.  Unlike these Great Miracles, the Noble Quran's Miracles lives in it and will continue to live in it until the Day of Judgement.   Please review the Scientific Miracles in the Noble Quran that I gathered so far above.

     

    He wrote:

    45- Muslims claim that in Isa 42:1 Muhammad fulfilled the expression "bring forth justice to the nations" indicating that the immoral pagan Arabs before Muhammad’s time were reformed into a just moral society. My question is: Even though you believe the New Testament is corrupt, had the Immoral Pagan Arabs all become Christians and followed the moral standards revealed in the corrupted New Testament, would they not have also transformed into a just moral society? If no why not? And how is the moral standard in the Koran superior to the moral standard of the Bible?

     

    My response:

    The Noble Quran does not teach polytheist paganism as trinity does.  Also, don't confuse today's democratic Western societies with the Bible.  The democracy in the West happened because of defiance to the Bible and the ruling of Church over State.   There is no freedom in the Bible, and very little justice.  Slavery is condoned in both the OT and NT.

    Please visit: Human Rights in Islam Vs. Christianity.

     

    He wrote:

    46- Muslims claim that the Angel Gabriel is the Holy Spirit who came upon Mary and caused her to conceive based upon Luke 1:26:38. My question is: If this is true, then why did Gabriel say to Mary in verse 35, "the power of the Holy Spirit will come upon you" rather than "my power will come upon you"?

     

    My response:

    I don't care what the Bible says, because it was proven that the gospel of Luke, which you mentioned, was written by a mysterious author.  According to Islam, Gabriel peace be upon him is the Holy Spirit.

     

    He wrote:

    47- Muslims quote Luke 22:43 as proof that when Jesus cried out to God not to be crucified, that an angel came and saved him from crucifixion. However the next verses says that Jesus was arrested by the mob for crucifixion. My Question is: on what basis do you accept the first passage as uncorrupted scripture, but reject the next verse as corrupted scripture?

     

    My response:

    Muslims do not claim that Luke 22:43 is an uncorrupted verse.  You are the one who is making this up.  I have covered the crucifixion contradictions between the OT and NT at:

    Did Isaiah 53 really prophesies about the crucifixion of Jesus? It supports Islam's claims about Jesus peace be upon him never died on the cross.  I also addressed John 19:36-37 from the Bible and proved that Jesus never got crucified, since GOD Almighty promised that he will protect Jesus' body and not let even a single bone be broken.  My question to all Christians is: How in the world is it possible for the feet to get nailed on the cross without any penetration to the bones by the nails, hence breaking part of the feet's bones?! I also added refutations to Exodus 12:46, Numbers 9:12, Zechariah 12:10 and Psalm 34:20, which supposedly prove the Christians' belief about Jesus crucifixion.  I proved that this dogma has no truth what so ever and exposed the wrong Trinitarian English translation of Zechariah 12:10.

     

    He wrote:

    48- Muslims claim it was medically impossible for blood and water to come out of Jesus when his side was pierced with spear because all the blood in Jesus body would have been clotted. The universal opinion of forensic scientists say that blood takes days to clot. My question is: Is this another example of where you reject all known science simply because Islam says this?

     

    My response:

    I never heard of any such Islamic claim.  It is physiologically possible for blood and water to come out of a pierced body.  Why don't you show us the reference to the "Muslim claims", instead of just giving us ridiculous fairy tales?

     

    He wrote:

    49- Muslims quote liberal agnostic Bible trashes who claim that the four gospels were copied from a lost original gospel known as the "Q document". This is a mythological document invented by these skeptics who reject Christianity, because they simply cannot accept the Bible is a book inspired from God. My question is: are you aware that the "Q Document" is a purely theoretical document that has never been found and is a complete fabrication and invention of the mind? And what is the value of quoting those who reject Christianity and Islam equally?

     

    My response:

    All of my quotes above about the bible's mysterious authors and corruptions came from the NIV Bible's theologians.  Again, please visit: www.answering-christianity.com/authors_gospels.htm.

    Also, please visit: Contradictions and History of Corruption in the Bible.

     

    He wrote:

    50- Muslims claim that the heading at the beginning of the four gospels "Gospel according to John", for example indicated the words came from John alone and prove the Bible to be a book of human authorship? In fact, that this text, like chapter and verse numbers, was added much later and are not part of the Bible? My question is: where did you learn that this text was part of the Bible?

     

    My response:

    Again, the quotes and evidence I showed above clearly proves that the gospels of the NT were written by mysterious authors, except for the books of Paul where they were written by him.  Paul however, never met Jesus in person, and was proven to be a liar who contradicted Jesus in many ways.

     

    He wrote:

    51- Muslims state that they believe that the Bible is a book filled with pornography, and quoted Gen 19:32 where Lot made his two daughters pregnant. My Question is: Do you feel that the Bible should be removed from every library in Canada? And are you comfortable with the fact that your prophet Muhammad married a six year old child, when he was 55 years old? Do you think this is a good story to tell children?

     

    My response:

    First of all, there is ample pornography in the Bible.  The Bible claims that women's breasts and vaginas taste like "wine".  It also claims poetically that the girl wished if her lover were her "biological brother" so she wouldn't have to take him home in secret, so they can make love.

    Please visit: X-Rated Pornography in the Bible.

    As to Prophet Muhammad's marriage with Aisha, first of all, she was 9 and not 6.  I think he was 45 or 50 when he married her.  Our Prophet peace be upon him married Aisha after she had her first period.  In Islam, girls are allowed to get married after they have their first menstruation.

    You might find it surprising, but according to the Jewish and Roman Catholic sources, Mary was 12 to 14 when she got pregnant with Jesus.  Taking the worst case, 12 years old, and using your logic, would prove that GOD was a pervert when He impregnated a "young virgin".

    Please visit: www.answering-christianity.com/aisha.htm for more proofs.

    See also, A 12-year old Christian girl getting married in Romania.

     

    He wrote:

    52- Muslims teach Muhammad was sinless. However the Koran specifically limits the number of wives a Muslim man can marry to 4. Yet Muhammad married at least 12 women. My question is: Is Muhammad above the very law he gave in the Koran and isn’t the definition of sin violating the law of God?

     

    My response:

    The Prophet peace be upon him already had his wives when Allah Almighty revealed Noble Verse 4:3.  Also, no knowledgable Muslim would ever claim that Prophet Muhammad was sinless.  He made mistakes and Allah Almighty mentioned in the Noble Quran.  Let us look at few examples:

    "(The Prophet) frowned and turned away, Because there came to him the blind man (interrupting). But what could tell thee but that perchance he might grow (in spiritual understanding)?- Or that he might receive admonition, and the teaching might profit him? As to one who regards Himself as self-sufficient,  (The Noble Quran, 80:1-5)"

    "O Prophet! Why holdest thou to be forbidden that which God has made lawful to thee? Thou seekest to please thy consorts. But God is Oft-Forgiving, Most Merciful.  (The Noble Quran, 66:1)"

    So as we can see, Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him made mistakes, because he was a human being.  Please visit:

    Prophet Muhammad was not sinless.

     

    He wrote:

    53- Muslims quote George Bernard Shaw who said, "The Bible is the most dangerous book in the world, keep it lock and keyed." My question is: What value is there for you to quote an atheist like Shaw who also said: "There is not one single established religion that an intelligent, educated man can believe." (George Bernard Shaw quoted in "2000 Years of Disbelief, Famous People with the Courage to Doubt", by James A. Haught, Prometheus Books, 1996) Shaw also said: "The fact that a believer is happier than a skeptic is no more to the point than the fact that a drunken man is happier than a sober one. The happiness of credulity is a cheap and dangerous quality. (George Bernard Shaw, Androcles and the Lion, Preface, 1916)

     

    My response:

    I have already showed ample evidence from Biblical and Christian sources above that prove that the bible is corrupt.  Again, please visit: Contradictions and History of Corruption in the Bible.

     

    He wrote:

    54- To prove the Bible text is corrupted, Muslims quote a newspaper article in the "Daily News" of Durban South Africa, Tues. May 22, 1990, where you claimed the Church of Scotland had deleted the virgin birth from the Bible. The article actually said that the church of Scotland had merely deleted the teaching from their local church creed and statement of faith. My question is: Would you please explain how a church deleting the virgin birth from their church doctrine books, in any way proves the Bible is corrupted?

     

    My response:

    Again, I have already showed ample evidence from Biblical and Christian sources above that prove that the bible is corrupt.  Again, please visit: Contradictions and History of Corruption in the Bible.

     

    He wrote:

    55- Muslims quote Isa 42 as a prophecy of Muhammad and say that Christians teach it is a prophecy of the Holy Spirit. (In fact Christians apply the text to Christ.) You also said that Isa 42 can only be fulfilled by Muhammad because Jesus is never called "my servant". My question is: why did Matthew quote Isa 42 and apply the whole text to Jesus in Matthew 12:18?

     

    My response:

    Here is what Matthew 12:18 says:

    "Here is my servant whom I have chosen, the one I love, in whom I delight; I will put my Spirit on him, and he will proclaim justice to the nations.   (From the NIV Bible, Matthew 12:18)"

    This verse in no way quotes Isaiah 42, because Isaiah 42 explicitly predicted the coming of a Prophet from Arabia.  Let us examine the entire Chapter of Isaiah 42:

    From www.answering-christianity.com/isaiah.htm

    Isaiah 42:

    This chapter seems to clearly speak about Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him for the following reasons:

    Isaiah 42

    The Servant of the Lord

    1 "Here is my servant, whom I uphold, my chosen one in whom I delight; I will put my Spirit on him and he will bring justice to the nations.
    2 He will not shout or cry out, or raise his voice in the streets.
    3 A bruised reed he will not break, and a smoldering wick he will not snuff out. In faithfulness he will bring forth justice;
    4 he will not falter or be discouraged till he establishes justice on earth. In his law the islands will put their hope."

    The Justice brought to the nations, the complete System of GOD Almighty's Laws on earth, the Truthfulness of Prophet Muhammad all point to these verses:

    "O ye who believe! Stand out firmly For justice, as witnesses To Allah, even as against Yourselves, or your parents, Or your kin, and whether It be (against) rich or poor: For Allah can best protect both. Follow not the lusts (Of your hearts), lest ye Swerve, and if ye Distort (justice) or decline To do justice, verily Allah is well-acquainted With all that ye do.  (The Noble Quran, 4:135)"

    "O ye who believe! Stand out firmly For Allah, as witnesses To fair dealing, and let not The hatred of others To you make you swerve To wrong and depart from Justice. Be just: that is Next to Piety: and fear Allah. For Allah is well-acquainted With all that ye do.  (The Noble Quran, 5:8)"

    "But if anyone earns A fault or a sin And throws it on to one That is innocent, He carries (on himself) (Both) a falsehood And a flagrant sin.  (The Noble Quran, 4:112)"

    "Allah commands justice, the doing Of good, and liberality to kith And kin, and He forbids All shameful deeds, and injustice And rebellion: He instructs you, That ye may receive admonition.   (The Noble Quran, 16:90)"

    "...Help ye one another In righteousness and piety, But help ye not one another In sin and rancour: Fear Allah: for Allah Is strict in punishment.  (The Noble Quran, 5:2)"

     

    Continuing with chapter Isaiah 42:

    5 This is what God the LORD says- he who created the heavens and stretched them out, who spread out the earth and all that comes out of it, who gives breath to its people, and life to those who walk on it:
    6 "I, the LORD , have called you in righteousness; I will take hold of your hand. I will keep you and will make you to be a covenant for the people and a light for the Gentiles,
    7 to open eyes that are blind, to free captives from prison and to release from the dungeon those who sit in darkness.

    The Gentiles are the non-Jews.  These verses clearly suggest that the coming Prophet will be among the Gentiles.  As to the covenant, please visit: Jesus told the Jews that GOD will take His Kingdom from them and give it to the Muslims.  (The article is too lengthy to copy and paste here.  So I ask the reader to read it thoroughly since it does contain Jesus' own quotes from the New Testament).

    The following sets of verses offer even more proofs:

    8 "I am the LORD ; that is my name! I will not give my glory to another or my praise to idols.
    9 See, the former things have taken place, and new things I declare; before they spring into being I announce them to you."

    Song of Praise to the Lord

    10Sing to the LORD a new song, his praise from the ends of the earth, you who go down to the sea, and all that is in it, you islands, and all who live in them.
    11 Let the desert and its towns raise their voices; let the settlements where Kedar lives rejoice. Let the people of Sela sing for joy; let them shout from the mountaintops.

    Kedar is the son of Ishmael peace be upon him.  The "settlements where Kedar lives" is referring to the Arabs.  The Arabs before Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him were pagans.  They used to worship idols.  They had 360 idols in the Holy City of Mecca.

    GOD Almighty in Isaiah 42:11 is clearly saying that He will send the people of Kedar (i.e., the Arabs) a Prophet and they should "rejoice" and "raise their voices" in happiness.

    Also, "Let the desert and its towns raise their voices;" is clearly referring to Arabia, since Arabia is known to be made of mostly deserts.  Jerusalem was never called "desert", nor the Jews were ever called the people of "Kedar".


    12 Let them give glory to the LORD and proclaim his praise in the islands.
    13 The LORD will march out like a mighty man, like a warrior he will stir up his zeal; with a shout he will raise the battle cry and will triumph over his enemies.
    14 "For a long time I have kept silent, I have been quiet and held myself back. But now, like a woman in childbirth, I cry out, I gasp and pant.
    15 I will lay waste the mountains and hills and dry up all their vegetation; I will turn rivers into islands and dry up the pools.
    16 I will lead the blind by ways they have not known, along unfamiliar paths I will guide them; I will turn the darkness into light before them and make the rough places smooth. These are the things I will do; I will not forsake them.
    17 But those who trust in idols, who say to images, 'You are our gods,' will be turned back in utter shame.


    Ironically, many Western anti-Islamics criticize Islam for spreading by the sword.  Islam did probably spread by the sword, but the Muslims never really started any battle.  It was the 360 pagan Arab tribes, and later the Persian and Christian Roman Empires that declared wars against the Muslims, because Islam's theology was rapidly expanding and it began to threat the pagan religion of Arabia and later the two major Empires in the region.

    "he will raise the battle cry and will triumph over his enemies" clearly means that this Prophet will fight by the sword the enemies of GOD Almighty.  It was Muhammad and his Muslim followers that spread Islam by crushing and defeating the enemies in the battles. 

    Jesus never fought any war nor ever led any army, so this Prophecy can not apply to him.


    Continuing with Isaiah 42:

    Israel Blind and Deaf

    18 "Hear, you deaf; look, you blind, and see!
    19 Who is blind but my servant, and deaf like the messenger I send? Who is blind like the one committed to me, blind like the servant of the LORD?
    20 You have seen many things, but have paid no attention; your ears are open, but you hear nothing."
    21 It pleased the LORD for the sake of his righteousness to make his law great and glorious.
    22 But this is a people plundered and looted, all of them trapped in pits or hidden away in prisons.
    They have become plunder, with no one to rescue them; they have been made loot, with no one to say, "Send them back."

    Here we see GOD Almighty is upset and greatly disappointed from the Jews.  He called them "deaf and blind".


    23 Which of you will listen to this or pay close attention in time to come?
    24 Who handed Jacob over to become loot, and Israel to the plunderers? Was it not the LORD ,
    against whom we have sinned? For they would not follow his ways; they did not obey his law.
    25 So he poured out on them his burning anger, the violence of war. It enveloped them in flames, yet they did not understand; it consumed them, but they did not take it to heart.


    Like above, here also we GOD Almighty upset with the people of Israel.  Please visit: Prophet Muhammad was foretold in Isaiah 42.

     

    He wrote:

    56- Muslims claim that the prophecy of the coming prophet in Deut 18:18 cannot be fulfilled by Jesus but could be fulfilled by Muhammad because the text says the prophet must arise from among their own brethren. Muslims say that if a Hebrew was intended, that the Bible would have said, "from among yourselves" rather than the expression "from among their own brethren". Hence Muslims claim the expression, "from among their own brethren" excludes all Hebrews and specifically Jesus. My question is: Since Deut 17:15 uses exactly the same expression, when it said, "you shall surely set a king over you whom the Lord your God chooses, one from among your own brethren" why did God appoint Saul and David as King and not an Ishmaelite? And in Deut 18:2 it says, "The Levites shall have no inheritance from among their brethren." Did the Ishmaelites share the inheritance of the promised land of Palestine with the Hebrews?

     

    My response:

    This topic is addressed in great details at: www.answering-christianity.com/deut1818_rebuttal.htm.

     

    He wrote:

    57- The Koran says in 4:157, that God causes someone who looked like Jesus to die on the cross in his place, therefore tricking the apostles of Christ into thinking he was crucified. Apostle John wrote in1 John 1:1 concerning the crucifixion: "What we have heard, what we have seen with our eyes, what we have looked at and touched with our hands, concerning the Word of Life". My question is: Was not John accurately reporting the things he actually saw, things that Allah made appear to happen?

     

    My response:

    Actually, the Old Testament seems to perfectly agree with the Noble Quran:

    From www.answering-christianity.com/isaiah_53.htm:

    Let us look at the following Noble Verse from the Noble Quran (The Muslims Holy Scripture): "That they rejected Faith; That they uttered against Mary A grave false charge;  That they said (in boast):  'We killed Christ Jesus The son of Mary, The Messenger of Allah.'  But they killed him not, Nor crucified him, but so it was made to appear to them, and those who differ therein are full of doubts, with no (certain) knowledge, but only conjecture to follow, for of a surety they killed him not.  Nay, Allah raised him up Unto Himself; and Allah Is Exalted in Power, Wise.  And there is none of the people of the book (Jews and Christians) But must believe in him  (Jesus) Before his death; And on the Day of Judgment He (Jesus) will be a witness Against them.   (The Noble Quran, 4:156-159)"  

    Now compare the Noble Verses to Isaiah 52:13 "...he will be raised and lifted up....".   Notice that Isaiah 52:13 did not say "....he will be RESURRECTED and lifted up...."  Not even once, did the Old Testament predict for the foretold Servant (Jesus) to be raised to GOD Almighty after death.  There absolutely no mention of any sort of resurrection in the Bible's Old Testament what so ever.

    Also, "...he will be raised and lifted up...." seems to suggest that Jesus will be picked up right from the cross, or saved right from the cross by Allah Almighty.  "raised and lifted" seems to suggest that Jesus will not die, nor get crucified, but rather be raised and lifted by GOD Almighty to Heavens.


    It just seems odd to see both words "raised" and "lifted", and not just one of them, in Isaiah 52:13, and yet think that they agree with the fabricated crucifixion story about Jesus in the NT. 

    Why did GOD Almighty choose to say "raised" and "lifted" in Isaiah 52:13?


    The very next verse also refutes the current New Testament:

    It appears that Isaiah 52:14 "Just as there were many who were appalled at him - his appearance was so disfigured beyond that of any man and his form marred beyond human likeness-" further proves Islam's claims about Jesus peace be upon him never got crucified on the cross, because if Jesus was so badly disfigured beyond any human imagination, then this means his physical appearance (face and body) afterwards might have been very confusing to the people.   In other words, people might not be able to recognize him, HENCE, THIS MIGHT CAUSE FOR ANOTHER PERSON TO HAVE BEEN PUT ON THE CROSS INSTEAD OF HIM (JESUS).


    According to what we have in the New Testament, Jesus was never "disfigured.....beyond human likeness"!  Jesus in the New Testament of today was NEVER DISFIGURED!

    And certainly, the crucifixion does not cause for the person, NOR DID IT CAUSE FOR JESUS IN THE NEW TESTAMENT, to be disfigured beyond any human recognition!


    According to Islam, Jesus peace be upon him might have been put on the cross and might have got "pierced", but he never died.  According to Islam, he was raised to Allah Almighty and saved from death.  We Muslims believe that Prophet Jesus peace be upon him will come back again to earth and fight the army of Satan and defeat it, and then the Judgment Day will come.   According to Islam, every person (including Jesus) must taste death (The Noble Quran, 44:56). 

    Which ever possibility is correct, whether it was another person got crucified, or Jesus himself was put on the cross and never got crucified, the claim of Islam is still supported by the Bible in either case as we clearly saw above in both Isaiah 52:13 and 52:14.

    Please visit the article Did Jesus get crucified according to Islam?

    The point is that Chapter Isaiah 53 agrees a lot more with Islam's claims than with the current Christianity's claims, and it is confirmed in Isaiah 52:13.

    There are several other Noble Verses in the Noble Quran that talk about Jesus such as the following:

    "So peace is upon me [Jesus] the day I was born, the day that I die, and the day that I shall be raised up to life.  (The Noble Quran, 19:33)"

    To see detailed explanation of this Noble Verse and about Jesus peace be upon him in Islam, please visit the following links:

    Does the Noble Quran in Verse 19:33 confirm Jesus' crucifixion?

    Ask me any question section.   See responses to many questions about Jesus in Islam.

     

    Again, please visit: Did Isaiah 53 really prophesies about the crucifixion of Jesus? It supports Islam's claims about Jesus peace be upon him never died on the cross.  I also addressed John 19:36-37 from the Bible and proved that Jesus never got crucified, since GOD Almighty promised that he will protect Jesus' body and not let even a single bone be broken.  My question to all Christians is: How in the world is it possible for the feet to get nailed on the cross without any penetration to the bones by the nails, hence breaking part of the feet's bones?! I also added refutations to Exodus 12:46, Numbers 9:12, Zechariah 12:10 and Psalm 34:20, which supposedly prove the Christians' belief about Jesus crucifixion.  I proved that this dogma has no truth what so ever and exposed the wrong Trinitarian English translation of Zechariah 12:10.

     

    He wrote:

    58- Muslims claim that the New Testament story of Jesus dying on the cross is a corruption of the truth and that Allah made it appear that Jesus died on the cross, as per Q4:157. My question is: How can Muslims claim that they believe any of the New Testament was originally revealed by God, since the corruption must have begun at the cross.

     

    My response:

    Again, please visit the links above in the previous question.  Also, please visit: What parts of the Bible do Muslims believe are closest to the Truth? and Why?

     

    He wrote:

    59- Muslims believe that the whole concept of blood atonement is an invention of the Christian church. My question is: What were the Jews doing since 1500 BC on the "day of atonement".

     

    My response:

    We don't believe that the blood atonement is an invention by the Christian church, because we believe in the story of Abraham peace be upon him offering his son, Ishamel and not Isaac, to GOD Almighty.  But we don't believe that Jesus ever got crucified, nor is Jesus the Creator of the Universe.

     

    He wrote:

    60- Muslims reject the gospel story of Jesus being a substitute for our sins, the just for the unjust. They use the illustration of a man having to pay for a speeding ticket he did not commit. My question is: How do you explain that in the Muslim view of the cross, someone completely innocent died in Jesus place, after God made him appear to be Jesus? Was not this a Substitutionary sacrifice?

    Written by Brother Andrew

     

    My response:

    GOD Almighty does what He Wills, and the Ultimate reward is in the Day of Judgement and not in this life.  Also, the Noble Quran doesn't necessarily suggest that Jesus was substituted by someone else.  It could be referring to Jesus not dying nor getting crucified, nor feeling pain, but it was made appear to his enemies.

    What ever the case is, it is Allah Almighty's Divine Wisdom and Decission.  Islam had proven itself to be Divine and Miraculous, and the Bible had proven itself to be corrupted and altered by men.

     

    www.answering-christianity.com/sci_quran.htm:

     

     

     

    He wrote:

    The 45 Bonus Questions for Muslims:

    by Robert Morey

    The outline below contains the very answers to the very questions Muhammad did not want his followers to know, namely that Islam is a sanitized version of ancient polytheistic moon worship which he invented to exercise military control.

     

    My response:

    First of all, Muslims do not worship the moon.  Please visit: Is Allah really a "moon god"?   It's funny how some anti-Islamics claim this, while the Noble Quran directly refutes this: "Among His Sings are the Night and the Day, and the Sun and the Moon. Adore not the sun and the moon, but adore God, Who created them, if it is Him ye wish to serve.  (The Noble Quran, 41:37)"

     

    He wrote:

    Does the Qur’an define the word "Allah"? No.

     

    My response:

    Yes it does.  "Say: He is God [Allah in the Arabic Noble Quran], the One and Only; God, the Eternal, Absolute; He begetteth not, nor is He begotten; And there is none like unto Him.  (The Noble Quran, 112:1-4)"

    "Say: He is Allah" is clearly defined in "the One and Only; God, the Eternal, Absolute".  In other words, "Allah" means the Supreme GOD Almighty who is above all gods.

    Please visit: The original name for GOD Almighty in Aramaic and Hebrew was indeed "Allah".  See proofs from Hebrew and Aramaic resources.  Aramaic was the language that Jesus peace be upon him spoke during his ministry.   Also, according to the Bible, "Yahweh" was not GOD Almighty's original name.  It was "Allah".  See proofs from the Hebrew resources.

     

    He wrote:

    2- Was the name "Allah" revealed for the first time in the Qur’an? No

     

    My response:

    No.  Again, please visit: The original name for GOD Almighty in Aramaic and Hebrew was indeed "Allah".  See proofs from Hebrew and Aramaic resources.  Aramaic was the language that Jesus peace be upon him spoke during his ministry.   Also, according to the Bible, "Yahweh" was not GOD Almighty's original name.  It was "Allah".  See proofs from the Hebrew resources.

     

    He wrote:

    3- Does the Qur’an assume that its readers have already heard of "Allah"? Yes

     

    My response:

    Again, please visit: The original name for GOD Almighty in Aramaic and Hebrew was indeed "Allah".  See proofs from Hebrew and Aramaic resources.  Aramaic was the language that Jesus peace be upon him spoke during his ministry.   Also, according to the Bible, "Yahweh" was not GOD Almighty's original name.  It was "Allah".  See proofs from the Hebrew resources.

     

    He wrote:

    4- Should we look into pre-Islamic Arabian history to see who "Allah" was before Muhammad? Yes.

     

    My response:

    Again, please visit: The original name for GOD Almighty in Aramaic and Hebrew was indeed "Allah".  See proofs from Hebrew and Aramaic resources.  Aramaic was the language that Jesus peace be upon him spoke during his ministry.   Also, according to the Bible, "Yahweh" was not GOD Almighty's original name.  It was "Allah".  See proofs from the Hebrew resources.

     

    He wrote:

    5- According to Muslim tradition, was Muhammad born into a Christian family and tribe? No

     

    My response:

    Correct.

     

    He wrote:

    6- Was he born into a Jewish family or tribe? No

     

    My response:

    Correct.  Please visit: Jesus said that GOD shall take His Kingdom from the Jews and give it to the Muslims.

     

    He wrote:

    7- What religion was his family and tribe? Pagans

     

    My response:

    His family were pagans, but he was a Unitarian (Muwahhid in Arabic); a person who never bowed down to any idol and believed in the Absolute One GOD Almighty.

     

    He wrote:

    8- What was the name of his pagan father? Abdullah (Abd + Allah)

     

    My response:

    The Jews' highest preist's name during Prophet Muhammad's time was "Abdallah bin Sabaa".  Abd = Servant of, and Allah = Supreme GOD.

    Again, please visit: The original name for GOD Almighty in Aramaic and Hebrew was indeed "Allah".  See proofs from Hebrew and Aramaic resources.  Aramaic was the language that Jesus peace be upon him spoke during his ministry.   Also, according to the Bible, "Yahweh" was not GOD Almighty's original name.  It was "Allah".  See proofs from the Hebrew resources.

     

    He wrote:

    9- Did Muhammad participate in the pagan ceremonies of Mecca? Yes

     

    My response:

    He might have attended it or watched it from a far.  But did he participate in their practice?  Absolutely Not!

     

    He wrote:

    10- Did the Arabs in pre-Islamic times worship 360 gods? Yes

     

    My response:

    Correct.

     

    He wrote:

    11- Did the pagans Arabs worship the sun, moon and the stars? Yes

     

    My response:

    Actually they did not worship the sun, moon and stars.  They worshiped idols to get closer to the Supreme GOD Almighty.  In other words, they associated partners with GOD Almighty, which is an unforgivable sin in Islam:

    "God forgiveth not that partners should be set up with Him; but He forgiveth anything else, to whom He pleaseth; to set up partners with God is to devise a sin Most heinous indeed. (The Noble Quran, 4:48)"

     

    He wrote:

    12- Did the Arabs built temples to the Moon-god? Yes

     

    My response:

    I don't think the pagan Arabs had a "moon god".

     

    He wrote:

    13- Did different Arab tribes give the Moon-god different names/titles? Yes

     

    My response:

    Again, I don't recall there was a "moon god" in pagan Arabia.

     

    He wrote:

    14- What were some of the names/titles? Sin, Hubul, Ilumquh, Al-ilah.

     

    My response:

    There were many other names to their gods.  However, "Al-ilah" means "the god" or "the GOD".  It's not a name, and was never a name for a pagan god.

     

    He wrote:

    15- Was the title "al-ilah" (the god) used of the Moon-god? Yes

     

    My response:

    Like I said, "al-ilah" means "the god" or "the GOD" in Arabic.

     

    He wrote:

    16- Was the word "Allah" derived from "al-ilah?" Yes

     

    My response:

    Absolutely not!  "Allah" is an independent word that "al-ilah" and "aliha" were derived from.  Again, the Jews' highest preist's name during Prophet Muhammad's time was "Abdallah bin Sabaa".  Abd = Servant of, and Allah = Supreme GOD.

    Again, please visit: The original name for GOD Almighty in Aramaic and Hebrew was indeed "Allah".  See proofs from Hebrew and Aramaic resources.  Aramaic was the language that Jesus peace be upon him spoke during his ministry.   Also, according to the Bible, "Yahweh" was not GOD Almighty's original name.  It was "Allah".  See proofs from the Hebrew resources.

     

    He wrote:

    17- Was the pagan "Allah" a high god in a pantheon of deities? Yes.

     

    My response:

    You have yet to prove that "Allah" was a pagan god.  Why don't you explain to us why the Jews' highest preist's name was "Abdallah bin Sabaa" during Prophet Muhammad's time?

    Again, please visit: The original name for GOD Almighty in Aramaic and Hebrew was indeed "Allah".  See proofs from Hebrew and Aramaic resources.  Aramaic was the language that Jesus peace be upon him spoke during his ministry.   Also, according to the Bible, "Yahweh" was not GOD Almighty's original name.  It was "Allah".  See proofs from the Hebrew resources.

     

    He wrote:

    18- Was he worshipped at the Kabah? Yes.

     

    My response:

    As I mentioned above, the pagan Arabs created gods from wood and stones to get closer to GOD Almighty.  They associated partners with GOD Almighty, which is an unforgivable sin in Islam:

    "God forgiveth not that partners should be set up with Him; but He forgiveth anything else, to whom He pleaseth; to set up partners with God is to devise a sin Most heinous indeed. (The Noble Quran, 4:48)"

     

    He wrote:

    19- Was Allah only one of many Meccan gods? Yes

     

    My response:

    Again, you have yet to prove that "Allah" was a pagan god.

     

    He wrote:

    20- Did they place a statue of Hubul on top of the Kabah? Yes.

     

    My response:

    The pagan Arabs glorified their idols.  Islam came and cleansed the Kaaba and Arabia from those idols.  This was even Prophecied in the Bible:

    The story of the 10,000 Muslims who liberated Mecca (Paran) in the Bible.

    The emigration of the Muslims to Madina was foretold in the Bible.

    Pilgrimage of Ezekiel to Mecca.

    See the Proof that "Paran" in the Bible is "Mecca".  Paran in the Bible is Mecca today - See the Archeological discoveries that prove Mount Sinai is in Saudi Arabia.

    Muhammad in the Bible; Standing upon Mount Arafat.

     

    He wrote:

    21- At that time was Hubul considered the Moon-god? Yes.

     

    My response:

    Again, I don't think the pagan Arabs had a "moon god".

     

    He wrote:

    22- Was the Kabah thus the "house of the Moon-god"? Yes.

     

    My response:

    The Kaaba was defiled with idols and pagan gods.  Islam came and cleansed them away.

     

    He wrote:

    23- Did the name "Allah" eventually replace that of Hubul as the name of the Moon god? Yes.

     

    My response:

    Again, you have yet to prove that "Allah" was a pagan god.

     

    He wrote:

    24- Did they call the Kabah the "house of Allah"? Yes

     

    My response:

    The Kaaba was called the "The House of Allah Almighty" after Islam cleaned it from the pagan idols.

     

    He wrote:

    25- Did the pagans develop religious rites in connection with the worship of their gods? Yes.

     

    My response:

    Correct.

     

    He wrote:

    26- Did the pagans practice the Pilgrimage, the Fast of Ramadan, running around the Kabah seven times, kissing the black stone, shaving the head, animal sacrifices, running up and down two hills, throwing stones at the devil, snorting water in and out the nose, praying several times a day toward Mecca, giving alms, Friday prayers, etc.? Yes.

     

    My response:

    You are so ridiculously ignorant and pathetic!  The pagans never fasted, nor ever prayed on Fridays, nor ever kissed the black stone as part of their ritual, nor ever ran up and down two hills, nor ever threw stones at the devil.

    Jesus fasted, Jesus prayed to his GOD Almighty, and Jesus paid charity.  According to your logic, Jesus too was a pagan.

    The running between two hills, is because Hagar ran seven times between the two hills: Al-Safa and Al-Marwa, when she was so desperately trying to get water for her child, Ishmael.

    As to the pilgrimage to Kaaba, tell me, Wasn't Allah Almighty Truthful in the Noble Quran when He promised Abraham peace be upon him that He was going to cause for people to come from all over the world to the city of Mecca?  Mecca at that time was a dead desert.  When Abraham asked GOD Almighty about how this place would become blessed, Allah Almighty promised him that He will cause for people to come from all over the world to it:

    From www.answering-christianity.com/yearly_pilgrimage.htm

    "Behold!  We gave the site, To Abraham, of the (Sacred) House [That is the Kaaba that he built], (Saying):  'Associate not anything (In worship) with Me; And sanctify My House For those who compass it round, Or stand up, Or bow, or prostrate themselves (Therein in prayer).  And proclaim the Pilgrimage among men: they will come to thee on foot and (mounted) on every kind of camel, lean on account of journeys through deep and distant mountain highways;  (The Noble Quran, 22:26-27)"

    As we clearly see in the Noble Verses, Allah Almighty promised Abraham peace be upon him that He will cause for people from all around the world to come and proclaim the pilgrimage to the House (Kaaba) that he built.

    The story began, when Abraham took Hagar and Ishmael to the city of Paran (Mecca), based on Allah Almighty's commands.   There was literally no life there; not even water.  Allah Almighty then ordered Abraham to build the House of GOD (Kaaba) and leave Hagar and his son Ishmael there.  When later Hagar and Ishmael became very thirsty after they ran out of the water they brought with them in the journey, Hagar prayed to Allah Almighty to provide water for them.  Hagar then started to desperately run to search for water seven times (I believe) back and forth between the Safa and Marwa hills.  Allah Almighty then caused Ishmael to rub his feet against the sand and a pool of water, the water of Zumzum came out.

    This Prophecy of Allah Almighty sending people from all over the world to Mecca is fulfilled every single year in Saudi Arabia through the Muslims' yearly pilgrimage, where one to three million Muslims come to perform the Hajj (pilgrimage).

    "When the Pilgrimage was proclaimed, people came to it from every quarter, near and far, on foot and mounted.  The 'lean camel' coming after the fatiguing journey through distant mountain roads typifies the difficulties of travel." [2]

     

    He wrote:

    27- Did Muhammad command his followers to participate in these pagan ceremonies while the pagans were still in control of Mecca? Yes (Yusuf Ali, fn. 214, pg. 78).

     

    My response:

    Here are what Noble Verse 2:196 and foot note 214 say:

    "And complete the Hajj or 'umra in the service of God. But if ye are prevented (From completing it), send an offering for sacrifice, such as ye may find, and do not shave your heads until the offering reaches the place of sacrifice. And if any of you is ill, or has an ailment in his scalp, (Necessitating shaving), (He should) in compensation either fast, or feed the poor, or offer sacrifice; and when ye are in peaceful conditions (again), if any one wishes to continue the 'umra on to the hajj, He must make an offering, such as he can afford, but if he cannot afford it, He should fast three days during the hajj and seven days on his return, Making ten days in all. This is for those whose household is not in (the precincts of) the Sacred Mosque. And fear God, and know that God Is strict in punishment.  (The Noble Quran, 2:196)"

    "When this was revealed, the city of Makkah was in the hands of the enemies of Islam, and the regulations about the fighting and the pilgrimage came together and were interconnected.  But the revelation provides, as always, for the particular occasion, and also for normal conditions.  Makkah soon passed out of the hands of the enemies of Islam.  People sometimes came long distances to Makkah before the Pilgrimage season began.  Having performed the 'Umrah, they stayed on the formal Hajj.  In case the pilgrim had spent his money, he is shown what he can do, rich or poor, and yet hold his head high among his fellows, as having performed all rites as prescribed."  (The Meaning of the Holy Quran, by Abdullah Yusuf Ali, Foot Note# 214, page 79).

    Again, you have yet to prove that Islam participated in pagan rites or had anything to do with paganism.

     

    He wrote:

    28- Did Islam go on to adopt these pagan religious rites? Yes. (Yusuf Ali: fn. 223 pg. 80).

     

    My response:

    Here are what Noble Verse 2:200 and foot note 223 say:

    "So when ye have accomplished your holy rites, celebrate the praises of God, as ye used to celebrate the praises of your fathers,- yea, with far more Heart and soul. There are men who say: "Our Lord! Give us (Thy bounties) in this world!" but they will have no portion in the Hereafter.  (The Noble Quran, 2:200)"

    "After the Pilgrimage, in pagan times, the pilgrims used to gather in assemblies in which the praises of ancestors were sung.  As the whole of the pilgrimage rites were spiritualized in Islam, so this aftermath of the Pilgrimage was also spiritualized.  It was required from pilgrims to stay on two or three days after the Day of Sacrifice, but they must use them in prayer and praise to Allah.  See 2:203 below (R)."  (The Meaning of the Holy Quran, by Abdullah Yusuf Ali, Foot Note# 223, page 82).

    Here is what Noble Verse 2:203 says:

    "Celebrate the praises of God during the Appointed Days. But if any one hastens to leave in two days, there is no blame on him, and if any one stays on, there is no blame on him, if his aim is to do right. Then fear God, and know that ye will surely be gathered unto Him.  (The Noble Quran, 2:203)"

    "The Appointed Days: the three days after the tenth, when the Pilgrims stay on in the Valley of Mina for prayer and praise.  They are the days of Tashriq (see 2:200, n. 223).  It is optional for pilgrims to leave on the second or third day."  (The Meaning of the Holy Quran, by Abdullah Yusuf Ali, Foot Note# 226, page 82).

    Again, as to the pilgrimage to Kaaba, tell me, Wasn't Allah Almighty Truthful in the Noble Quran when He promised Abraham peace be upon him that He was going to cause for people to come from all over the world to the city of Mecca?  Mecca at that time was a dead desert.  When Abraham asked GOD Almighty about how this place would become blessed, Allah Almighty promised him that He will cause for people to come from all over the world to it:

    From www.answering-christianity.com/yearly_pilgrimage.htm

    "Behold!  We gave the site, To Abraham, of the (Sacred) House [That is the Kaaba that he built], (Saying):  'Associate not anything (In worship) with Me; And sanctify My House For those who compass it round, Or stand up, Or bow, or prostrate themselves (Therein in prayer).  And proclaim the Pilgrimage among men: they will come to thee on foot and (mounted) on every kind of camel, lean on account of journeys through deep and distant mountain highways;  (The Noble Quran, 22:26-27)"

    As we clearly see in the Noble Verses, Allah Almighty promised Abraham peace be upon him that He will cause for people from all around the world to come and proclaim the pilgrimage to the House (Kaaba) that he built.

    The story began, when Abraham took Hagar and Ishmael to the city of Paran (Mecca), based on Allah Almighty's commands.   There was literally no life there; not even water.  Allah Almighty then ordered Abraham to build the House of GOD (Kaaba) and leave Hagar and his son Ishmael there.  When later Hagar and Ishmael became very thirsty after they ran out of the water they brought with them in the journey, Hagar prayed to Allah Almighty to provide water for them.  Hagar then started to desperately run to search for water seven times (I believe) back and forth between the Safa and Marwa hills.  Allah Almighty then caused Ishmael to rub his feet against the sand and a pool of water, the water of Zumzum came out.

    This Prophecy of Allah Almighty sending people from all over the world to Mecca is fulfilled every single year in Saudi Arabia through the Muslims' yearly pilgrimage, where one to three million Muslims come to perform the Hajj (pilgrimage).

    "When the Pilgrimage was proclaimed, people came to it from every quarter, near and far, on foot and mounted.  The 'lean camel' coming after the fatiguing journey through distant mountain roads typifies the difficulties of travel." [2]

     

    He wrote:

    29- Were al-Lat, al-Uzza and Manat called "the daughters of Allah"? Yes.

     

    My response:

    You're obviously a joker who claims to know a lot about Islam, when he doesn't even know the fundamentals of Islam:

    "Say: He is God, the One and Only; God, the Eternal, Absolute; He begetteth not, nor is He begotten; And there is none like unto Him.  (The Noble Quran, 112:1-4)"

    "Say: "Praise be to God, who begets no son, and has no partner in (His) dominion: Nor (needs) He any to protect Him from humiliation: yea, magnify Him for His greatness and glory!"  (The Noble Quran, 17:111)"

    "It is not befitting to (the majesty of) God that He should beget a son. Glory be to Him! when He determines a matter, He only says to it, "Be", and it is.  (The Noble Quran, 19:35)"

    "For it is not consonant with the majesty of (God) Most Gracious that He should beget a son.  (The Noble Quran, 19:92)"

    "No son did God beget, nor is there any god along with Him: (if there were many gods), behold, each god would have taken away what he had created, and some would have lorded it over others! Glory to God! (He is free) from the (sort of) things they attribute to Him!  (The Noble Quran, 23:91)"

     

    He wrote:

    30- Did the Qur’an at one point tell Muslims to worship al-Lat, al-Uzza and Manat? Yes. In Surah 53:19-20.

     

    My response:

    Here is what Noble Verses 53:19-20 say:

    "For truly did he see, of the Signs of his Lord, the Greatest! Have ye seen Lat. and 'Uzza, And another, the third (goddess), Manat? What! for you the male sex, and for Him, the female? Behold, such would be indeed a division most unfair!  (The Noble Quran, 53:18-22)"

    Nothing is more offending than to have an anti-Islam Christian assume that his Western reader is soooo stupid and shallow-minded that he can he deceive him with such a ridiculous and easily-refuted lie.  But don't worry here Robert and Andrew, it is not your reader who is stupid.  Your Western reader is very intelligent. 

    It is you two clowns who are the most stupid; most shallow-minded; and most pathetic of all!


    Here is what Allah Almighty said about associating partners with Him:

    "God forgiveth not that partners should be set up with Him; but He forgiveth anything else, to whom He pleaseth; to set up partners with God is to devise a sin Most heinous indeed. (The Noble Quran, 4:48)"

     

    He wrote:

    31- Have those verses been "abrogated" out of the present Qur’an? Yes.

     

    My response:

    No clown, they have not been abrogated.

     

    He wrote:

    32- What were they called? "The Satanic Verses." Yes.

     

    My response:

    If Noble Verses 53:19-20 are considered "satanic verses", then why are they still existing in the Noble Quran?

     

    He wrote:

    33- Was the crescent moon an ancient pagan symbol of the Moon-god throughout the ancient world? Yes.

     

    My response:

    Yes, so?  Visit: Is Allah really a "moon god"?   It's funny how some anti-Islamics claim this, while the Noble Quran directly refutes this: "Among His Sings are the Night and the Day, and the Sun and the Moon. Adore not the sun and the moon, but adore God, Who created them, if it is Him ye wish to serve.  (The Noble Quran, 41:37)"

     

    He wrote:

    34- Was it the religious symbol of the Moon-god in Arabia? Yes

     

    My response:

    Maybe.  I don't care about the pagan gods.

     

    He wrote:

    35- Were stars also used as pagan symbols of the daughters of Allah? Yes

     

    My response:

    I have just proven above that you are very very stupid for saying Allah Almighty has daughters.  As to stars being used as symbols for pagan gods, this has nothing to do with Islam.

     

    He wrote:

    36- Did the Jews or the Christians of Arabia use the crescent moon with several stars next to it as symbols of their faith? No

     

    My response:

    Correct.  The Christians however did worse.  They took Jesus as their Creator.  He became their pagan god through their polytheist trinity paganism dogma.

     

    He wrote:

    37- Did Islam adopt the pagan crescent moon and stars as it religious symbol? Yes.

     

    My response:

    Again, visit: Is Allah really a "moon god"?   It's funny how some anti-Islamics claim this, while the Noble Quran directly refutes this: "Among His Sings are the Night and the Day, and the Sun and the Moon. Adore not the sun and the moon, but adore God, Who created them, if it is Him ye wish to serve.  (The Noble Quran, 41:37)"

     

    He wrote:

    38- As Islam developed over the centuries, did it adopt pagan names, pagan ceremonies, pagan temples and pagan symbols? Yes

     

    My response:

    No it did not.  How about providing a proof.

     

    He wrote:

    39- Is it possible that most Muslims do not know the pagan sources of the symbols and rites of their own religion? Yes.

     

    My response:

    I guess we're waiting for you to teach us our religion.

     

    He wrote:

    40- Are they shocked to find out the true sources of their ceremonies and stories? Yes

     

    My response:

    No kidding!  I am very shocked alright.

     

    He wrote:

    41- Can Islam be the religion of Abraham if it is derived from paganism? No

     

    My response:

    You have yet to prove that Islam is a pagan religion.  The only paganism here is your polytheist trinity paganism that took Jesus, a man created from dust, as a Creator of the Universe.

    As to Islam being the Religion of Abraham, here is what the Noble Quran says:

    "Who can be better in religion than one who submits his whole self to God, does good, and follows the way of Abraham the true in Faith? For God did take Abraham for a friend.  (The Noble Quran, 4:125)"

    "They say: 'Become Jews or Christians if ye would be guided (To salvation).' Say thou: 'Nay! (I would rather) the Religion of Abraham the True, and he joined not gods with God.'  (The Noble Quran, 2:135)"

    "Abraham was not a Jew nor yet a Christian; but he was true in Faith, and bowed his will to God's (Which is Islam), and he joined not gods with God.   (The Noble Quran, 3:67)"

     

    He wrote:

    42- What then is Islam? A modern version of one of the ancient fertility cults.

     

    My response:

    Islam simply means submitting yourself to the Absolute One and True Living GOD Almighty, and associating no partners with Him.  Visit: What is the Wisdom of Islam?

     

    He wrote:

    43- Is the "Allah" of the Qur’an, the Christian God of Father, Son, and Holy Spirit? No

     

    My response:

    Again, please visit: The original name for GOD Almighty in Aramaic and Hebrew was indeed "Allah".  See proofs from Hebrew and Aramaic resources.  Aramaic was the language that Jesus peace be upon him spoke during his ministry.   Also, according to the Bible, "Yahweh" was not GOD Almighty's original name.  It was "Allah".  See proofs from the Hebrew resources.

     

    He wrote:

    44- Do the Jews say that the Muslim "Allah" is their God too? No

     

    My response:

    Yes they did.  Visit the link above for detailed proofs.  That is why the Jews' highest priest's name during Prophet Muhammad's time was "Abdallah bin Sabaa".

     

    He wrote:

    45- Then whose god is Allah? Paganism

      

    My response:

    Again, please visit: The original name for GOD Almighty in Aramaic and Hebrew was indeed "Allah".  See proofs from Hebrew and Aramaic resources.  Aramaic was the language that Jesus peace be upon him spoke during his ministry.   Also, according to the Bible, "Yahweh" was not GOD Almighty's original name.  It was "Allah".  See proofs from the Hebrew resources.

      

      

      

      

      

    Back to Rebuttals, and exposing the lies of the Answering Islam team section.

    Back to the "dumpster section" where I threw Andrew, the liar, in along with other liars like him.

      

    See Also:

    The "Son of God" Title in the 1 John 2:22

    Jesus is Yahweh the Son?  See how Christians got this very wrong in the NT, using Jesus' words himself!
    Also, is Islam the anti-Christ system according to 1 John 2:22?

    Anti-Christ | 1john 2:22-23 | 911 was 100% an Israeli Lie | Boston | 666| Dividing Israel

    Also visit:

  • Trinity Crucified!  100s of verses prove trinity is false.  Jesus healed others only after getting permissions from GOD Almighty.  His wishes were sometimes denied. [1] [2]
  • Note:  The (*) links below are html backups of the website's blog topic threads, in case the blog and its database are down.

      

    From: www.answering-christianity.com/convert_christians.htm:

      

    1 John 2:22-23 are discussed further down in details in this table.

  • God in the OT addresses people as "my son" and describes them as his begotten son.  Why does God use these terms with others in the time of Moses and Jesus and Abraham and other prophets, and now condemns these tittles in the Quran?  Why would God give room to misuse these terms like the Greek and Romans did?

  •   

    Son of GOD definition:

    In the Bible, "the Son" refers to the Messiah, - the Ultimate Messenger to the Jews.  Son in their time meant Servant of GOD.  Allah Almighty also explained it precisely like this in the Glorious Quran: "....servants raised to honour.  (The Noble Quran, 21:26)".  Please visit:

    www.answering-christianity.com/definition_son_of_god.htm

    This is what we will be called in Heaven, and Allah Almighty also does recognize "Son of GOD" title in the Glorious Quran, but Says that they are no more than pious "....servants raised to honour.  (The Noble Quran, 21:26)".  Nothing Divine about them except that they exist with Allah Almighty Eternally in Heaven.  But as far as Divine Authority and Power, all Divine Authority and Power belong to Allah Almighty Alone and none else.  You can visit:
      
    www.answering-christianity.com/definition_son_of_god.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/son_of_god_in_bible_and_quran_debate.ppt
    www.answering-christianity.com/son_of_god.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/son_translation.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/debate_templates.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/convert_christians.htm

  • Trinity Crucified!  100s of verses prove trinity is false.  Jesus healed others only after getting permissions from GOD Almighty.  His wishes were sometimes denied. [1] [2]
  •   

    And other great figures in the Old Testament were also called:

    1-  GOD (El) of other people.
    2-  Son of GOD.
    3-  Begotten Son of GOD.
    4-  GOD's First Born.
    5-  GOD's Heir and Heirs (for believers).
    6-  GODly name with Yahweh and El attached to the name.
    7-  King of Kings (called by Yahweh Himself in the OT).
    8-  All believers are GODs (Elohim) and Sons of GOD (Beni Elohim).
      

    Is Jesus "God's Son" or "God's Servant (SLAVE)?" [1]

    King James Version
    Acts 3:25 - Ye are the children of the prophets, and of the covenant which God made with our fathers, saying unto Abraham, And in thy seed shall all the kindreds of the earth be blessed.

    Acts 3:26 - Unto you first God, having raised up his Son Jesus, sent him to bless you, in turning away every one of you from his iniquities.

    New King James Version
    Acts 3:25 - You are the sons of the prophets, and of the covenant which God made with our fathers, saying to Abraham, 'And in your seed all the families of the earth shall be blessed.

    Acts 3:26 - To you first, God, having raised up His Servant Jesus, sent Him to bless you, in turning every one of you away from his iniquities.

    "Servant" here is slave.  Jesus was called ABD (SLAVE) in the OT [2], the
    same word used for the Jews' slaves, and all slaves in general, throughout
    the Bible [
    2].  Jesus, the abd of GOD, is also the slave of GOD in the NT.

    In Arabic also it's the same.  My name Osama Abdallah, which means
    Osama slave of Allah (GOD).  Slave is a subject of GOD.  A servant is
    independent and has a free will.  He/she can quit serving.  But a
    slave (ABD) is OWNED.
      

    I elaborated on this point in details at:

    www.answering-christianity.com/godtitle.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/questions.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/trinity_crucified.htm#king_of_kings_lie
    www.answering-christianity.com/trinity_crucified.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/jesus_called_slave_in_bible.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/son_of_god.htm

    The Servants are the Prophets of Israel.  But Jesus is "the Son" because he is the Messiah, the highest Jew and highest Jewish Prophet.

      

    Jesus was called ABD (SLAVE) of GOD:

    www.answering-christianity.com/jesus_called_slave_in_bible.htm

      

    John 1:1:

    John 1:1 answered from the Glorious Quran Includes a Scientific Miracle in the Glorious Quran.

    John 1:1
    "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God
    was with authority (same Greek word for satan's rule [ [1] [2] [3])
    ."

      

    The Word encompasses Jesus:

    From www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php/topic,2884.msg13839.html#msg13839:

    From brother Shaad:

    The Logos and Jesus are differentiated in Revelation.....

    Revelation 20:4 King James Version (KJV)

    4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the ;witness of Jesus, and for the word of God...

    Revelation 1:2

    2 who testifies to everything he saw—that is, the word of God and the 


    Jazaka Allah Khayr, dear brother Shaad.  I took the liberty to add the emphasis to your text, akhi.  Indeed, the Word of GOD Almighty ENCOMPASSES Jesuss, because he was made/created from it; exactly as Islam declares.

    Trinity is false.  I have added your addition to:

    www.answering-christianity.com/word_of_god.htm

    Osama Abdallah

      

    Messiah definition::

    www.answering-christianity.com/definition_of_maseeh_in_quran.htm

      

    The Doubting Thomas:
      
    Doubting Thomas said
    "My Lord and my God" to Jesus.  Yet, all believers were called "God", and Moses was the "God" of the Believers, Aaron and Pharaoh:

  • Moses was called "The God" (Exodus 7:1) of the Believers, Aaron and Pharaoh.  Jesus said he was greater than Moses.  Thomas, the Disciple, called Jesus "My Lord and my God" (John 20:28).  Jesus denied to be GOD Almighty.  All Believers were called "GODS and Sons of GOD" (Psalm 82:6) in the Bible.  "GOD" in the Bible also means master, leader, priest.  Therefore, the doubting Thomas' statement didn't suggest that Jesus was his Creator.  And Jesus being a "God" doesn't mean that he is GOD Almighty.  He is just another mere "God" like the rest of the believing creations and nothing more.
      

  • The Bible also says that Jesus had to be "in according to Melchizedek".  And who is Melchizedek?  According to the Bible, he was the Jews' highest priest who had "no father and no mother", and "no beginning and no end" (Genesis 14:18, Psalm 110:4, Hebrews 5:6-10, Hebrews 7:1-20).  Jesus had to be similar and inline with him; another proof that Jesus being "God" doesn't mean he is the Creator of the Universe.
      
  • The Bible called Jesus a slave (abd) of GOD throughout the Old Testament!
      
  • Jesus denied knowing when Judgment Day will come, and said I DON'T KNOW, ONLY GOD ALONE KNOWS!
  • For ample more details, visit:

    www.answering-christianity.com/godtitle.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/convert_christians.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/son_of_god.htm

  • Also, the Family of Allah أهل الله in Islam, and the Majestic "We" [1] [2] [3]
  • www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php?topic=1904.msg7673#msg7673
    www.answering-christianity.com/john20_28.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/jesus_had_no_will.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/jesus_miracles.htm (non of Jesus' Miracles were unique)
    www.answering-christianity.com/ac7.htm#links
    www.answering-christianity.com/jesus_called_slave_in_bible.htm

  • Trinity Crucified!  100s of verses prove trinity is false.  Jesus healed others only after getting permissions from GOD Almighty.  His wishes were sometimes denied. [1] [2]
  •   

    Jesus' Original Name:

    Prophet Jesus' original name was Eesa, as this is also his Islamic name.  Even in Latin, it is Iesu, and in Greek it is Iesus.  There is also a great deal of evidence that Jesus spoke and preached in Arabic.  Not only that, but Greek wasn't even that popular in Palestine.  Islam's claims are very strongly supported.  See proofs below.

      

    Did early Christians preach Prophet Muhammad in Rome?

    Did the early believers preach Prophet Muhammad in Corinth, Antioch, Rome and all other places?  Prophet Jesus, peace be upon him, was the Jews' Messiah and final Prophet.  In both the Glorious Quran and the Dead Sea Scrolls, Ahmed was prophesied to come.  Ahmed in the Quran is Prophet Muhammad's prophetic name.  Also, see below the Dead Sea Scroll image.  The New Testament too predicts the coming of three:

    1.  Elijah.
    2.  The Messiah.
    3.  The Prophet.

    John 1:19-21 and John 7:40-44.  Click on the images to expand:
      
        

  • John the Baptist calls Jesus a liar! (Matthew 11:1-6).

  •   

    So did the early believers preach the coming of Prophet Ahmed or Muhammad?  The answer is quite possible, but Muhammad would've been phase 2 for them and not phase 1.  Jesus was the early believers' immediate Prophet, not Muhammad.  And all of the details that they had were about Jesus, not Muhammad.  It is also important to know that the following seven Roman Emperors have thoroughly burned all of the early believers' writings:

    1.  Nero (54-68)
    2.  Domitian (81-96)
    3.  Marcus Aurelius (161-180)
    4.  Septimius Severus (193-211; up to a point)
    5.  Maximinius I Thrax (235-8; up to a point)
    6.  Trajanus Decius (249-251)
    7.  Valerian (253-260)

    Read all the details with references here.

    What we have today from "gospels" and "New Testament" were written 80 years to 300 years after Jesus' departure from this earth.  So, the current writings that we have are not original writings.  Also, to appease the Roman Empire's 3-headed pagan religion and practices, the pagan 3-headed trinity was invented [1] [2] [3] [4] [5].  Many lies had been fabricated after the original writings were all lost.  The Jews and Christians of Arabia, however, did have writings that predicted the coming of Prophet Muhammad.  These were some of the original texts that survived.

    From Why Jews settled in Arabia section:


    Video and text are in the linked section above.

      

    Jesus also preached in Arabic:

    See the clear proofs in the following:

  • Proofs that early Christian believers' title was MUSLIMS from the Jews' and Christians sources themselves.  Also, Greek wasn't even the first language in Palestine, nor was it even hardly spoken by the natives there.
      
  • Also, ample proofs that Jesus also spoke and preached in Arabic, and there were many early manuscripts written in Arabic that spoke about the coming of Prophet Muhammad in details.  Arabic is estimated to date back 8000 to 20000 years by non-Muslim researchers, and had always been the first language in the entire lands of the Middle East, North and Central Africa.
      
  • Prophet Muhammad in the Early Christians' writings.
      
  • Prophet Muhammad foretold, by the name, in the previous Scriptures.  We still have texts today and from the Bible itself and outside the Bible that tell about the coming of Prophet Muhammad and Islam as the Servant of GOD Almighty and the New Religion and Covenant of GOD Almighty, respectively.
      
  • Important:
      
    What is the definition of Messiah in the Quran?
    Jesus was created from the Word of GOD and filled with the Holy Spirit, according to Islam.
      
  • In the Bible, Muslims, Salamays, Mushlams, Mushlems, Mushlimana are the Believers' original title [1].  Islam came to restore the original Faith [1].
      

  •   

    Prophet "AHMAD" is found in the Dead Sea Scrolls:
      
      

    (Film in this article)

      
    Prophet Muhammad in the previous Scriptures.  Prophet Muhammad was thoroughly foretold in the Bible, and his prophetic Name, "Ahmed", was also found in the Dead Sea Scrolls, and it was mentioned precisely in the Glorious Quran for the Prophet to be foretold by this very Name, Ahmed [1] [2].

      

    Father and Son Definitions:

    Definition of Key Terms (*) (a discussion between me and a Christian):

    1-  What does "The Father" really mean in the Bible?  How is it defined in Islam? (see point #5 below)  How does the Bible really define it?

    2-  What does "Son of GOD" really mean in the Bible? 

    3-  Jesus had to match Melchizedek in Miracles and Power, according to the New Testament.  See this text-debate (*) between me and a Christian.  Jesus' Miracles and Miraculous Birth and Nature were given to him because he needed to be in according to Melchizedek.  He had to be “in according to Melchizedek” as the Bible specifically says.  See Genesis 14:18, Psalm 110:4, Hebrews 5:6-10, Hebrews 7:1-20 [2].

      

    Who is Melchizedek?

    According to the Bible, he was the Jews' highest priest who had "no father and no mother", and "no beginning and no end" (Genesis 14:18, Psalm 110:4, Hebrews 5:6-10, Hebrews 7:1-20) [2].  The Bible literally says that.  Jesus had to be similar and inline with him; another proof that Jesus being "God" doesn't mean he is the Creator of the Universe.

  • Is Jesus Allah Almighty for creating things in the Noble Quran?  And is he better than Prophet Muhammad for being a creator?  And is there a contradiction in the Noble Quran regarding idol gods not being able to create and Jesus Christ?  See the Books that Allah Almighty gave to certain powerful Beings to enable them to possess certain Powers and to do certain Miracles, including limited Creations.
      

  • Also again, see this text-debate (*) between me and a Christian.
      

  • 4-  Does the Bible say that Yahweh created Jesus Yes it does (*)

  • John 1:1
    "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God was with authority
    (same Greek word for satan's rule (*) [2] [3])."
      

  • Detailed discussion about Jesus' Will (*) with ample verses.
      

  • In Islam, there are three "Worlds" or Realms:

  • (a)-  GOD Almighty, who is not seen by anyone or anything, nor is like unto anyone or anything.

    (b)-  The World of Command, which is the invisible world of the Beings that were made by the Word and the Spirit.

    (c)-  The World of Creation, the flush and blood, dust and water physical world and Universes (plural).

    Also visit: Is the Noble Quran a Creator or Creation?

      
      
    "Father" and "Son" in Islam and the Bible:

    Christians often quote the following verses to prove that Islam is the Anti-Christ:

    1 John 2
    22  Who is a liar but he that denies that Jesus is the Christ? He is antichrist, that denieth the Father and the Son.
    23  No one who denies the Son has the Father; whoever acknowledges the Son has the Father also.

      

    5-  What does the Glorious Quran say about the “Father” and “Son” titles:

  • The Quran is against the exaggerated and inflated meanings of the words, which ultimately the polytheistic religion of trinity was born out of.
      

  • Allah Almighty Said: "And they say: "(God) Most Gracious has begotten offspring." Glory to Him! they are (but) servants raised to honour (The Noble Quran, 21:26)"
      

    From http://www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php?topic=2141.msg9505#msg9505:

      

    The Family of Allah أهل الله in Islam, and the Majestic "We":
      

    .......

    In regards to your question, there are two legitimate answers for it:
      
    1-  GOD Almighty can and does refer to Himself as WE and I.  So the plural We can and does refer to Allah Almighty Alone.
      
    2-  In Allah Almighty's Realm, there are the People of Allah.   AHLU ALLAH أهل الله (Family of Allah)).

  • Go to www.google.com  إن لله - تعالى - أهلين من الناس، قالوا: يا رسول الله من هم؟ قال: هم أهل القران، أهل الله وخاصته
      
  • The Hadith in Arabic translates as:
      
    "; أهلين from mankind.  They asked: "O Messenger of Allah, who are they?"  He said: They are the People of the Quran; the Family/People of GOD أهل الله , and they are His Special Ones خاصته.";
      

      
  • This is what we will be called in Heaven, and Allah Almighty also does recognize "Son of GOD" title in the Glorious Quran, but Says that they are no more than pious  (The Noble Quran, 21:26))".  Nothing Divine about them except that they exist with Allah Almighty Eternally in Heaven.  But as far as Divine Authority and Power, all Divine Authority and Power belong to Allah Almighty Alone and none else.  You can visit:
      
    www.answering-christianity.com/definition_son_of_god.htm (The definition of "Son of God" in Islam)
    www.answering-christianity.com/son_of_god_in_bible_and_quran_debate.ppt
    www.answering-christianity.com/son_of_god.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/son_translation.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/debate_templates.htm
    www.answering-christianity.com/convert_christians.htm

  • Trinity Crucified!  100s of verses prove trinity is false.  Jesus healed others only after getting permissions from GOD Almighty.  His wishes were sometimes denied. [1] [2]
  •   

    Iblis, who later became satan, used to be from AHLU ALLAH أهل الله (Family of Allah) when he was a pious Servant.  /span> But because he and his followers disobeyed GOD Almighty, they were cursed and kicked out of the COMMUNITY OF GOD Almighty:
      
    www.answering-christianity.com/adam.htm
      
    So it is quite possible that Allah Almighty uses the WE to refer to Him and His Servants that HE spoke with directly and Commanded directly.  But even in that ca/span>se, the WE still also means Allah Almighty Alone (the Majestic We), because Allah Almighty is the
     One and Only Decision Maker, and there is none other besides Him.
      
    I hope this helps, insha'Allah.
      
    Take care,
    Osama Abdallah

      
      

  • So people did call each others “Son” and “Daughter” of “GOD”. But in all reality, they are no more than Servants of GOD raised to honor.
          

  • Here are some Bible facts regarding "FATHER" and "SON": 
      

  • Allah Almighty is the Believers' only Guardian (المولى): See Noble Verses 8:40, 22:13, 22:78/font>.
      
  • In Arabic we say ولي الأمر , which means "The Legal Guardian".  المولى is derived from the root word ولي  .ولي also means a chosen friend to Allah Almighty.
      
  • FRIENDS = SONS in the Bible and Quran (ولي , وليهما and خليلا).  We further read the following in the Bible:

    Isaiah 41:8/font> "But you, Israel, my servant, Jacob, whom I have chosen, you descendants of Abraham my friend,

    Chronicles 20:7 Our God, did you not drive out the inhabitants of this land before your people Israel and give it forever to the descendants of Abraham your friend?

    James 2:23 And the scripture was fulfilled that says, "Abraham believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness," and he was called God's friend.
      
  • So being GOD Almighty's "SON" in the Bible is equal to being GOD Almighty's "FRIEND".  Now compare this to the following from the Holy Quran:
      
    [002:257] Allah is the friend (ولي) and patron of those who believe. He brings them out of the depths of darkness into light. While those who do not believe, have the forces of evil as their friends; they lead them out of light, into the very depths of darkness. Such ones shall be the inmates of the fire. They will stay there forever.
      
    [003:122] (And remember) when the two groups among you lost heart (and almost fell out), even though Allah was their Friend and Protector (وليهما)? In Allah (alone), should the believers place their trust!
      
    [004:125] Who can be better in religion than one who submits his whole self to God, does good, and follows the way of Abraham the true in Faith? For God did take Abraham for a friend (خليلا).
      
  • So the Bible's "FATHER" & "SON" for GOD Almighty and the Believers is clearly metaphoric, and it only means that GOD Almighty:
    1-  Is the Protector.
    2-  Is the Friend.
    3-  Is the Guardian.
      
  • Also, BEGET = CHOSE.
      
  • King James Bible Psalm 2:7 I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.
      
  • Allah Almighty used اصطفاك اصطفيتك يصطفي اصطفى اصطفينا to mean to Choose a Servant in Noble Verses 27:59, 3:33, 3:42, 7:144, 22:75, 35:32, 38:47, 39:4 in the Glorious Quran.
      
  • So clearly Islam is in harmony with GOD Almighty being our:

    -  Guardian
    -  Friend
    -  Protector
    -  And the One who Chose us.
      
  • And we definitely believe that Jesus is the Messiah.
      
  • One last important point:  Nowhere in the Bible is Jesus ever called "from the Seed of GOD" or "the Seed of GOD".  We do have "Jesus is from the seed of David" (Psalm 132:10-11, Romans 1:3)But never from GOD!
      
  • GOD has no seed according to both the Bible and the Quran.
      
  • Therefore, the claim that Islam is the Anti-Christ is false.
  •  

    So, is Islam the anti-Christ system according to 1john 2:22 No it isn't.  Here are some Quran and Bible facts regarding "FATHER" and "SON" in more details:

    (a)-  Allah Almighty is the Believers' only Guardian (المولى):

  • See Noble Verses 8:40, 22:13, 22:78.  In Arabic we say ولي الأمر , which means "The Legal Guardian".  المولى is derived from the root word ولي  .ولي also means a chosen friend to Allah Almighty, as in the following point.   

  • (b)-  FRIENDS = SONS in the Bible and Quran (ولي , وليهما and خليلا):

    We further read the following in the Bible:

    Isaiah 41:8
    "But you, Israel, my servant, Jacob, whom I have chosen, you descendants of Abraham my friend,

    Chronicles 20:7
    Our God, did you not drive out the inhabitants of this land before your people Israel and give it forever to the descendants of Abraham your friend?

    James 2:23
    And the scripture was fulfilled that says, "Abraham believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness," and he was called God's friend.

    So being GOD Almighty's "SON" in the Bible is equal to being GOD Almighty's "FRIEND".  Now compare this to the following from the Holy Quran:

    [002:257] Allah is the friend (ولي) and patron of those who believe. He brings them out of the depths of darkness into light. While those who do not believe, have the forces of evil as their friends; they lead them out of light, into the very depths of darkness. Such ones shall be the inmates of the fire. They will stay there forever.

    [003:122] (And remember) when the two groups among you lost heart (and almost fell out), even though Allah was their Friend and Protector (وليهما)? In Allah (alone), should the believers place their trust!

    [004:125] Who can be better in religion than one who submits his whole self to God, does good, and follows the way of Abraham the true in Faith? For God did take Abraham for a friend (خليلا).

    So the Bible's "FATHER" & "SON" for GOD Almighty and the Believers is clearly metaphoric, and it only means that GOD Almighty:

    1-  Is the Protector.
    2-  Is the Friend.
    3-  Is the Guardian.

    Please visit the following link to further see what Words the Glorious Quran uses for these words and definitions:

    http://www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php/topic,1368.msg5203.html#msg5203     (backup)

      
    (c)-  BEGET = CHOSE:

    Regarding the following verse, and many others like it:

    King James Bible Psalm 2:7
    I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.

    Let us look at Noble Verses 27:59, 3:33, 3:42, 7:144, 22:75, 35:32, 38:47, 39:4 from the Glorious Quran:

    [027:059] Say: Praise be to God, and Peace on his servants whom He has chosen اصطفى (for his Message). (Who) is better?- God or the false gods they associate (with Him)?

    ‏27:59 قل الحمد لله وسلام على عباده الذين اصطفى ءالله خير اما يشركون

    [003:033] God did choose اصطفى Adam and Noah, the family of Abraham, and the family of 'Imran above all people,-

    ‏3:33 ان الله اصطفى ادم ونوحا وال ابراهيم وال عمران على العالمين

    [003:042] Behold! the angels said: "O Mary! God hath chosen thee اصطفاك and purified thee- chosen thee above the women of all nations.

    ‏3:42 واذ قالت الملائكة يامريم ان الله اصطفاك وطهرك واصطفاك على نساء العالمين

    [007:144] (God) said: "O Moses! I have chosen thee اصطفيتك above (other) men, by the mission I (have given thee) and the words I (have spoken to thee): take then the (revelation) which I give thee, and be of those who give thanks."

    ‏7:144 قال ياموسى اني اصطفيتك على الناس برسالاتي وبكلامي فخذ ما اتيتك وكن من الشاكرين

    [022:075] God chooses يصطفي messengers from angels and from men for God is He Who hears and sees (all things).

    ‏22:75 الله يصطفي من الملائكة رسلا ومن الناس ان الله سميع بصير

    [035:032] Then We have given the Book for inheritance to such of Our Servants as We have chosen اصطفينا: but there are among them some who wrong their own souls; some who follow a middle course; and some who are, by God's leave, foremost in good deeds; that is the highest Grace.

    ‏35:32 ثم اورثنا الكتاب الذين اصطفينا من عبادنا فمنهم ظالم لنفسه ومنهم مقتصد ومنهم سابق بالخيرات باذن الله ذلك هو الفضل الكبير

    [038:047] They were, in Our sight, truly, of the company of the Elect المصطفين and the Good.

    ‏38:47 وانهم عندنا لمن المصطفين الاخيار

    [039:004] Had God wished to take to Himself an (actual) son, He could have chosen لاصطفى whom He pleased out of those whom He doth create: but Glory be to Him! (He is above such things.) He is God, the One, the Irresistible.

    ‏39:4 لو اراد الله ان يتخذ ولدا لاصطفى مما يخلق مايشاء سبحانه هو الله الواحد القهار

    Furthermore, when Jesus was asked about when the Hour will come, he replied by saying that only GOD Almighty Knows, and that no one knows, and that Jesus himself also didn't know.  Please visit:

    http://www.answering-christianity.com/questions.htm
    http://www.answering-christianity.com/ac7.htm#links

  • Trinity Crucified!  100s of verses prove trinity is false.  Jesus healed others only after getting permissions from GOD Almighty.  His wishes were sometimes denied. [1] [2]

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    Jesus spelled it out clearly that he knew NOT.  And as to calling GOD Almighty "Father", and that Islam denies that GOD Almighty is an ACTUAL FATHER to anyone, in Islam GOD Almighty is called:

    1-  Rab - Lord, Father (you are the Rab of your home for being the husband and the father).

    2-  Wali - Guardian.

    In the old Aramaic and Hebrew, GOD Almighty was called what-is-equivalent-to-Islam our Rab and Wali.  But that doesn't make GOD Almighty our actual Father.  This is exactly as Judaism metaphors such as idolatry is equivalent to spiritual adultery.  No Jew is actually married to GOD Almighty to actually commit a personal marriage-adultery against GOD Almighty!  Yet, the Jews use metaphors like these.  Islam came to straighten all of this out and to set the record straight that GOD Almighty has no son and no daughter.  Otherwise, why would GOD Almighty torture us to Hell if we were His perfect sons and daughters??  No imperfect being could be an actual son of GOD Almighty (and no being is the son or daughter of GOD Almighty, period!):

    [005:018] (Both) the Jews and the Christians say: "We are sons of God, and his beloved." Say: "Why then doth He punish you for your sins? Nay, ye are but men,- of the men he hath created: He forgiveth whom He pleaseth, and He punisheth whom He pleaseth: and to God belongeth the dominion of the heavens and the earth, and all that is between: and unto Him is the final goal (of all)"

    Again, please visit: http://www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php/topic,1368.msg5203.html#msg5203     (backup).

      

    The Logical Fallacy and Corruption of 1 John 2:22:

    (d)-  Let's thoroughly look at the logical fallacy of this verse and its corruption:

    1-  " Who is the liar"??  Or should the text say who is the one who disbelieves?

  • The text clearly suggests that the book was written by a mere individual, whose emotions caused him to make a logical fallacy in the text, hence he is not a genuine Messenger of GOD.
     

  • Furthermore, we don't see this statement anywhere else throughout the Bible!  For such a serious statement to be truly from GOD Almighty, we would expect it to at the very least exist in any or all of the four gospels.  But it exists in none, and not even in Paul's writings either.  It only exists once in this late epistle.
     

  • Furthermore, the Bible’s commentary regarding 1 John book say:

    "1 John does not tell us who its author is.  The earliest identification of him comes from the church fathers..."  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1904)

    "The letter is difficult to date with precision...."  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1905)

    For book bibliography, visit: www.answering-christianity.com/authors_gospels.htm

  •   
    2-  Also keep in mind that the 1 John book contains forgeries.  For example:

  • 1 John 5:7  "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one."  This verse was proven to be a forgery, and was removed from all of the modern Bible translations.

    Please visit: www.answering-christianity.com/1john5_7.htm

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    6-  Did you know that Elohim is Allah [1, *] [2] [3].  The "im" in Hebrew is a majestic plural for GOD Almighty.  The root Word is "Eloh".  And the more original Jews such as Yemenites and others say Alohim or Alah-im.  And when you yourself pronounce it, you do naturally pronounce it with a double "l": Allah.  Jews do call Him: Allah-im.  Aramaic-speaking people also call GOD Almighty Allah.  See the following videos for Biblical references and proofs.  Also, pre-Islamic Biblical archeological findings have GOD Almighty as "Allah".  So the Original Holy Name for GOD Almighty is not Eloh.  It is Allah!  Eloh is a Hebrew dialect, which not all Hebrew speakers use anyway.  Allah had always been the Original and Universal GOD Almighty even before birth of Judaism, and the existence Hebrew.  And Hebrew is a developed language from Phoenician.  See the following links:

               
           (Click to play videos)

           http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phoenician_alphabet
           http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biblical_Hebrew

      


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