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The infinite loop problem Sura 26:192,195,196: "It (the Qur'an) is indeed a revelation from the Lord of the Worlds, ... in clear Arabic speech and indeed IT (the Qur'an) is in the writings of the earlier (prophets)." Now, the 'earlier writing' are the Torah and the Injil for example, written in Hebrew and Greek. HOW can an ARABIC Qur'an be contained in a books of other languages? Furthermore, if would have to contain this very passage of the Qur'an since the Qur'an is properly contained in them. Hence these earlier writings have to be contained in yet other earlier writings and we are in an infinite loop, which is absurd.
This one has a number of interesting claims. The verses speak about the Qur'an and describe it as being revealed by the Lord and it being in Arabic, however, the verses only say that the Qur'an was mentioned, or prophesied, in the "Zubr" (etchings/scripture) of the ancients. Some translators have understood the reference to "scripture" in this context to mean the scriptures of the prophets, while others have understood it to refer to the scriptures of the angels (i.e. Al-Qamar(54):52). Regardless, this does not mean that the Qur'an as a physical entity is to be found in that scripture, rather, what is to be found therein is mention of the Qur'an or a prophesy of it. This is indeed similar to such verses as Al-A'araf(7):157:
Those who follow the Messenger (Muhammad), the unlettered Prophet whom they find written in the Torah and the Gospel with them... "
According to the author of this list, does this mean that prophet
Muhammad (pbuh) too was physically present, in flesh and blood, within the pages of
these books? Maybe this is yet another "contradiction" since nowhere in the
Bible can we find prophet Muhammad (pbuh) present in flesh and blood?
Back to Responses to the so called "Contradictions" in the Noble Quran.
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