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When Commanded Pharaoh the Killing of the Sons? When Moses was a Prophet and spoke God's truth to Pharaoh [40:23-25] or when he was still an infant [20:38-39]? 

Pharaoh issued this decree twice. The first decree was issued by him in an effort to try and prevent the birth of the one who would cause his downfall. The second decree was issued for a completely different reason after Moses (pbuh) grew up, became a messenger, and then showed Pharaoh the signs of Allah. The slave workers, the Jews, began to rally around him. In order to prevent a revolt he ordered a mass slaughter of their children in order to bring them back in line and, as he saw it, to put them back in their place.

What do we expect from Pharaoh? He was a tyrant. This is how he dealt with his problems, by killing people. Why is it so hard to believe that he might have done this more than once? In the Bible we read in Matthew 8:6-13 that Jesus (pbuh) cured a centurion's servant who was sick with the "palsy." However, in Matthew 9:2-7 we read that he cured a completely different man from the "palsy" in a completely different location. Obviously this is a "contradiction," right? Jesus can't possibly have performed such a wondrous miracle TWICE

In the Qur'an we read that Moses (pbuh) brought no less than nine signs before Pharaoh, however, each time Pharaoh would say: "pray to your lord to lift this plague and I shall submit and deliver the Jews to you." However, each time Moses (pbuh) would do so he would go back on his word. Obviously, according to the above logic, Pharaoh could not have done this nine different times. They must be nine "contradictions," right?


Back to Responses to the so called "Contradictions" in the Noble Quran.

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