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« Last post by Wahrani on June 03, 2021, 02:45:38 PM »
I would like to make my small contribution to this discussion:

According to this concept, Repeals in the Qu’ran (Al-Nasekh and Al-Mansoukh), it is said that some verses of the Qu’ran are repealed and invalidated by other verses! The verse that is abrogating is called Al-Nasekh, while the repealed verse is called Al-Mansoukh.

Although the concept was originally invented by a few scholars as a consequence of their poor understanding of the Qu’ran, it has been widely exploited by enemy Quran writers to tarnish the perfection and divinity of the book.
As stated, the concept of abrogation implies that some Quranic verses have been abrogated by other verses.
On the other hand, writers who are enemies of Islam claim that these verses, and others that they put forward, are in fact contradictions within the Qu’ran.
So, they use these examples to refute the divinity of the Qu’ran.
It should be noted that the examples used by Muslim scholars as "abrogated verses" are not always the verses used by non-Muslim writers; they then speak of "contradictions in the Qur’an ".
Although it can be said that the common point between these two groups is their poor understanding of the Qur'an, it should also be added that in the case of non-Muslim writers, and particularly those who do not speak Arabic, a large number of their assertions in favor of contradictions is only the product of their use of imprecise and misleading translations of the Qur'an.
Both of these claims can be refuted in the light of the Qu’ran. They can be shown to be nothing more than a weak understanding of the Book.

Alif, Lâm, Ra. A Scripture whose signs have been confirmed, and then detailed, from a knowledgeable Sage. Qu’ran, 11: 1

There is for them a good announcement in the life here below as well as in the ultimate life. - There will be no change in the words of Allah -. This is the huge success! Qu’ran, 10:64

These Quranic verses clearly state that God's words are perfect and cannot be abrogated, yet some have fabricated the biggest lie about the Qu’ran, claiming that some verses abrogate others. They base their words on a misinterpretation of this verse:
First verse, 2: 106
If We abrogate (“nansakh”) any Ayah or cause it to be forgotten, We bring a better one, or a similar one. Don't you know that Allah is Omnipotent? Quran, 2: 106

Interpreters claim that this verse confirms that some verses invalidate others.
They interpret the word "ayah" to mean a verse in the Qur'an; and they interpret the word "nansakh" to mean "to abrogate".
But does this word, as used in the Quran, really mean to abrogate?
The word "Ayah", as used in many verses of the Quran, can have four different meanings:

It can mean a miracle from God:
And indeed, We gave Moses nine obvious Ayahs (miracles). (…) Quran, 17: 101
It can also mean an example for people:
And the people of Noah, when they denied the messengers, We drowned them and made an example (Ayah) to the people. (…) Quran, 25:37
The word "Ayah" can also mean sign:
"O my Lord, said (Zechariah), grant me a sign (Ayah)". “Your sign (Ayah), says (Allah,) will be that you will not be able to talk to people for three nights while being well. Quran, 19:10
And finally, it can denote a verse from the Quran:
(Here is) a blessed Book which We have sent down to you, that they may meditate on its verses (Ayat) and those who are gifted with intelligence may reflect! Quran, 38:29
If we now consider verse 106 of sura 2, one can easily verify that the word "Ayah" cannot refer here to a verse from the Quran. It can correspond to other meanings (miracle, example or sign), but not to a Quranic verse.

Here's why :
1) The words "may We make him forget" cannot be applied to a verse from the Quran.
How could a verse from the Quran be forgotten?
Because even if the verse is invalidated by others (as falsely claimed by the interpreters), it will still be part of the Quran and therefore cannot be forgotten.

2) The words "We bring a similar one" would be meaningless if the word "Ayah" meant a Koranic verse, simply because it would be absurd for God to invalidate a verse and replace it with an identical one!
3) If the word “Ayah” in verse 106 means a miracle, example or sign, then all the words in the verse have a perfect meaning. The words "may We make him forget" can be applied to all three meanings, and this is what happens with the passage of time. The miracles of Moses and Jesus have been forgotten. We only believe in them because they are mentioned in the Quran.

Likewise, the words "We bring a better, or the like" accord with the miracles of God.
God replaces a miracle with its like or one that is greater. Consider the following verse:
We actually sent Moses with Our miracles (Ayah), to Pharaoh and his notables. He said, "I am the Messenger of the Lord of the universe." Then when he came to them with Our miracles (Ayah), they laughed. Each miracle (Ayah) We showed them was more convincing than its previous one. And We seized them with the chastisement, perhaps they will return (to Us). Quran, 43: 46-48

The word "nansakh" used in 2: 106 comes from the verb "Nasakha". It is said that this word means to repeal.
But a careful study of all the Quranic verses using this word shows that it actually has the opposite meaning. It means to record or put in writing.
When God means "substitute", the word used is “Baddala”, as in 16: 101.
When We replace ("baddalna") one "Ayat" with another - and God knows better what He sends down - they say, "You made it up." But most of them do not know. Quran, 16:10
The replacement in question here can relate to two things:
a) replacing one scripture with another. This first meaning can be validated by the following verse:
And upon you We sent down the Book with the truth, to confirm the Books which were there before it and to prevail over them. (…) Quran, 5:48

Here, the words "prevail over them" confirm that the previous scriptures are replaced by the Qur'an.
b) Replacing one law in one scripture with another in a subsequent scripture. This second meaning is also proven by the Quran, where various things previously prohibited for the People of the Book were made lawful in the Quran.
As an example, we are told in 2: 187 that sexual relations between married couples during the nights of the month of fasting were permitted, whereas they were previously prohibited.
We are also told in 6: 146 that God forbade the Jews to have all animals with one nail; and that the fat of cattle and sheep was prohibited. This has been made lawful in the Quran.
Verse 16:10 is not about substituting one verse for another
The proof of this lies in the same verse, in the words "they say: You made up this"
Because of their ignorance of the Quran, these forgers clearly violated a fundamental truth in the Quran which states that the words of God cannot be abrogated:

And the word of your Lord is fulfilled in all truth and righteousness. No one can change His words. He is the Audient, the Omniscient. Qur'an, 6:11 a.m.

No change in God's words. This is the immense triumph. Quran, 10:64

« Last post by QuranSearchCom on June 02, 2021, 08:17:28 PM »
An abrogation is when a general Law is permanently nullified by another.  This does not exist in the Glorious Quran.  Christianity's prohibition of polygamy, for example, would qualify as an abrogation in their lala world of buffoonery, even though Jesus never forbade it:

Because their religion is a religion of lies, it is filled with lies on GOD Almighty, and it has turned sinful into lawful and lawful into sinful.

If the Prophet was in a position where any further marriage became forbidden for him because he had more than four wives at the time Allah Almighty set that limit, then this is not an abrogation.  The Prophet's situation here is not a general Law for all Muslims and for all times and places.  The Law about a woman offering herself to the Prophet can still be applied for slave women.  Believing slaves owned by Muslims did exist back then.  She could still be his female harem.  But then again, one of Islam's Grand Goals is to end all slavery:

[090:012] And what will make you comprehend what the uphill road is?
[090:013] (It is) the setting free of a slave,

So one of the monumental tasks upon the Muslims is to end all forms of slavery.  Yet, the Glorious Quran also allows enslaving, buying slaves, selling slaves, having harems (female slaves).  So is this a contradiction?  No.  Is this an abrogation (90:12-13 abrogating all other verses or vise versa)?  No.  All Noble Verses concerning slaves and slavery still stand TILL THIS DAY!  All 6236 Noble Verses that make up the entire Glorious Quran still stand today and will always stand till the Day of Judgment.  We have no abrogation here.  The Muslim State and Court and people must be mindful that Allah Almighty has set high and monumental goals in the Glorious Quran.  In the interim of things, however, the slavery Noble Verses could be activated and applied due to battles that may occur or deals and/or transactions.  But the ultimate goal must be to end all forms of slavery in all Muslim lands.

As to why the Noble Verses that are limited to the Prophet exist in the Glorious Quran, this belongs to Allah Almighty.  No one can really answer this one.  I can however remind you that the Glorious Quran's Text and number of verses is STUNNINGLY miraculous:

Take care,
Osama Abdallah
« Last post by Qualities of Allah on June 02, 2021, 12:40:48 PM »
I'm sorry because I probably missed your point. You said that marriage had an expiration date for the Prophet. But first he could marry single believing women (not any woman, I got that part) and later marriage expired for him where he cannot marry new women. Doesn't this still mean that the marriage expiration verse ABROGATED the Verse where the Prophet could marry single believing women who offered themselves to him?

Also, why are these verses that are ONLY talking to the Prophet even here? Now the Prophet is gone so why are these verses still important? I get that prophets have privileges over common men but if Allah wanted to tell the Prophet rules that only apply to him, why did He not reveal that in another way like through a dream of the Prophet or something? Why did He reveal it in a universal Quran when he knew that after the Prophet is gone, these rules won't apply to anyone anymore?

Please answer the two questions and thank you so much.
« Last post by QuranSearchCom on June 02, 2021, 08:53:40 AM »
Sure.  Let us look at the Noble Verses in question:

[033:050]  O Prophet! We have made lawful to thee thy wives to whom thou hast paid their dowers; and those whom thy right hand possesses out of the prisoners of war whom God has assigned to thee; and daughters of thy paternal uncles and aunts, and daughters of thy maternal uncles and aunts, who migrated (from Makka) with thee; and any a believing woman who dedicates her soul to the Prophet if the Prophet wishes to wed her;- this only for thee, and not for the Believers (at large); We know what We have appointed for them as to their wives and the captives whom their right hands possess;- in order that there should be no difficulty for thee. And God is Oft-Forgiving, Most Merciful.

[033:051]  Thou mayest defer (the turn of) any of them that thou pleasest, and thou mayest receive any thou pleasest: and there is no blame on thee if thou invite one whose (turn) thou hadst set aside. This were nigher to the cooling of their eyes, the prevention of their grief, and their satisfaction - that of all of them - with that which thou hast to give them: and God knows (all) that is in your hearts: and God is All-Knowing, Most Forbearing.

[033:052]  It is not lawful for thee (to marry more) women after this, nor to change them for (other) wives, even though their beauty attract thee, except any thy right hand should possess (as handmaidens): and God doth watch over all things.

Two things we must keep in mind:

1-  The Glorious Quran's Verses came down in different times.  The ordering of the Noble Verses was done by Angel Gabriel and Prophet Muhammad, peace be upon them.  The Angel would instruct the Prophet where the new Noble Verse or verses be placed.

2-  Prophets had certain privileges.  Nothing contradicting to Allah Almighty's Moral Code, but Prophets had privileges.  Even in the Jewish religion, Prophets and priests had privileges, such as they are forbidden from marrying non-virgin Jewish women and any non-Jewish woman:

So regarding Noble Verse 33:50, the women that were allowed for the Prophet were really nothing different from those allowed for Muslim men.  As to "...any believing woman who has offered herself to the Prophet and whom the Prophet wishes to wed....", actually there is a mistranslation here.  The Noble Verse in Arabic says "...and a believing woman who has...."  There is no ANY.  Married women are forbidden to marry other men, and the Noble Verse does not give an absolute any.  The woman must be single, and not a MUHSANAH (under another man).

Regarding Noble Verse 33:52, it is a Law that was given to Prophet Muhammad to forbid him from:

1-  Marrying or replacing women with other women.  This is because the sacredness of marriage and its Solemn Covenant was made clear in the Glorious Quran.

2-  The Prophet at the time of limiting polygamy to up to four wives only, he had more than four wives at the time.  So Allah Almighty put a freeze on the Prophet from further marrying any woman.

3-  This Noble Verse also prevents any further taking advantage or abuse of the sacredness of marriage by the Prophet.  Divorce is allowed but it is highly detestable by Allah Almighty, and being careless with it will bring sin upon you:

‏2:236 لاجناح عليكم ان طلقتم النساء مالم تمسوهن او تفرضوا لهن فريضة ومتعوهن على الموسع قدره وعلى المقتر قدره متاعا بالمعروف حقا على المحسنين

"You bear no sin if you divorce your wives AS LONG AS YOU HAVE NOT (ma-lam مالم) had (a sexual) contact (with them), and before settling (the amount of) the nuptial premium (for them). Yet, you should make provisions for them (even then); the affluent in keeping with his means, and the poor according to what he can afford. A fair provision is an obligation upon the pious.  (The Noble Quran, 2:236)"

This Noble Verse is for all Muslim men and it is speaking in the plural.  The only time you're guaranteed to not bring sin upon you via divorce is if you divorce before the first sexual intercourse, i.e., before consummating the marriage.  This is the period where the couple would be engaged and are allowed to start going out and decide if they're good match to each other or not.  So to prevent the Prophet from abusing divorce, Allah Almighty simply prohibited him from marrying again.  The Prophet was still allowed to divorce any wife.  This was never forbidden for him.

Please visit:

No abrogation at all.  Just different Laws for different situations.  For all Muslim men, marriage and divorce are allowed for as long as they live.  For the Prophet, marriage had an expiration date on it.  The day came when he was forbidden from marrying again.

Take care,
Osama Abdallah

« Last post by Qualities of Allah on June 01, 2021, 08:43:03 PM »
I got more questions related to this topic. I was looking at Surah Ahzab and 2 verses seemed outdated. Also one of the 2 verses abrogated the other one it seems. The verses are 33:50 and 33:52. 33:50 reads as follows:

"Prophet, We have made lawful for you the wives whose bride gift you have paid, and any slaves God has assigned to you through war, and the daughters of your uncles and aunts on your father’s and mother’s sides, who migrated with you. Also any believing woman who has offered herself to the Prophet and whom the Prophet wishes to wed- this is only for you [Prophet] and not the rest of the believers: We know exactly what We have made obligatory for them concerning their wives and slave-girls- so you should not be blamed: God is most forgiving, most merciful."

As you can see, this verse first of all IS ONLY ADDRESSED TO THE PROPHET. Only he can marry women who offer themselves to him (more than 4). So one question can already be made without reading the other Verse, "Why is this Verse in the Quran? This Verse doesn't apply to us?"

Ok moving on to 33:52:

"You [Prophet] are not permitted to take any further wives, nor to exchange the wives you have for others, even if these attract you with their beauty. But this does not apply to your slave-girls: God is watchful over all."

Here is the main question: "Why did Allah 2 verses before tell the Prophet that he can marry anyone who proposes to him and now He is saying that the Prophet cannot marry anyone else (except slaves)? This clearly sounds like abrogation.

Please address these 2 questions. (Note that as I see more things that seem to be abrogation I will ask them in this topic over time. In other words, questions will be added here over periods of time.)
« Last post by Qualities of Allah on May 29, 2021, 02:45:00 PM »
I found a hadith which is related to this:

كَانَ اللهُ وَلَمْ يَكُنْ شَيْءٌ غَيْرُهُ

"God was and nothing else existed."

This hadith means that God always existed before anything (obviously) and it used كَانَ to say God existed. So, the Quran's use of كَانَ means that His Attributes "were" (with Him) and nothing was.

« Last post by Qualities of Allah on May 29, 2021, 02:06:40 PM »
Yeah I was thinking about it. It sounds more powerful. Like when Allah says, "And God was the Forgiving, the Merciful," He basically means, "And God was [since the beginning of time] the Forgiving, the Merciful." Instead of using "is" which can mean God just learned how to be Merciful and Forgiving, was means always.

Take care too.
« Last post by QuranSearchCom on May 28, 2021, 04:09:51 PM »
Also brother, the past tense even in English can include the future.  For example, if you ask me "Do you own ?" or "Are you the owner of ?"

Technically, I can answer you something like this: "I've been since 1999".  "I've been" here doesn't stop at today and the future.  In other words, it doesn't mean that I stopped owning the website or no longer own the website.  No, on the contrary, it would mean here that I've been and I am still and will always insha'Allah be the owner of this website.  The context of "I've been" here means it is continuous.

So Allah Almighty using past tense is indeed most appropriate, because it does include the past, present and future and all infinity and all eternity.  So Kaana for Allah Almighty means that He's been and is and will always be.

Take care,
Osama Abdallah
« Last post by QuranSearchCom on May 28, 2021, 08:28:44 AM »
Jazaka Allah Khayr as well, brother.
« Last post by Qualities of Allah on May 28, 2021, 08:23:04 AM »
It was just a question when I was reading the Quran. Obviously the infidels have nothing, if the infidels argue about كَانَ they have to know that there are present tenses for Allah. (وَاللهُ سَمِيْعٌ عَلِيْمٌ) "And God is Hearing, Knowing." So forget about the infidels. I was just asking why كَانَ was sometimes used in the Quran. You have given a good answer saying كَانَ is for Allah and resembles the Eternal and Infinite Attributes and that they weren't just "become" one day.

جَزَاكُمُ اللهُ خَيْرًا
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