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The DSM-IV-TR diagnostic criteria for pedophilic disorder (then called pedophilia) define this paraphilia as the sexual preference for prepubertal children. There is only one generally accepted medical or scientific definition of prepuberty, that is, Tanner Stage 1 of pubertal development
According to "modern Western standards," pedophilia is sexual attraction to children under tanner stages 2 or less, Menstruation occurs at tanner stages 3 or 4. Muhammad (SAW) had sexual intercourse with Aisha (RA) when she started mensturating. Therefore, Muhammad (SAW) was not a pedophile.

Note: I will provide evidence for the first paragraph when i get time, but please use this for the website, Brother Osama. Also, sorry if this is terrible formatting, this is just what i replied to a person who claimed he (SAW) was a pedophile.

GENERAL TOPICS | BOARD ANNOUNCEMENTS / Need help with refutation
« on: July 12, 2016, 07:19:48 AM »
I need help with an argument i am in, I will include the discussion below (note i am copying his words down and i am not slandering Islam) His argument is in red and mine is in blue.

Him: so you're saying "I am telling you what scholars of the past and present have interpreted".


3.7. It is He who has sent down to you, the Book; IN IT ARE VERSES THAT ARE PRECISE - they are the foundation of the Book - and others unspecific. As for those in whose hearts is deviation, they will follow that of it which is unspecific, seeking discord and seeking an interpretation. AND NO ONE KNOWS ITS INTERPRETATION EXCEPT ALLAH. But those firm in knowledge say, "We believe in it. All is from our Lord." And no one will be reminded except those of understanding.


The Qur'ān must be understood and obeyed litteraly.

Your scholars are described by the Qur'ān as "those in whose hearts is deviation".

Me: “It is He Who has sent down to you (Muhammad صلى الله عليه وسلم) the Book (this Qur’aan). In it are Verses that are entirely clear, they are the foundations of the Book [and those are the Verses of Al-Ahkaam (commandments), Al-Faraa’id (obligatory duties) and Al-Hudood (laws for the punishment of thieves, adulterers)]; and others not entirely clear. So as for those in whose hearts there is a deviation (from the truth) they follow that which is not entirely clear thereof, seeking Al-Fitnah (polytheism and trials), and seeking for its hidden meanings, but none knows its hidden meanings save Allaah. And those who are firmly grounded in knowledge say: “We believe in it; the whole of it (clear and unclear Verses) are from our Lord.” And none receive admonition except men of understanding”

This seems to be a more PRECISE translation.

“So as for those in whose hearts there is a deviation”, i.e., misguidance, and ignoring the truth in favour of falsehood, “they follow that which is not entirely clear thereof” i.e., they interpret that which is not entirely clear in such a way that allows them to distort it to suit their corrupt aims, because the wording could be interpreted in the way they want. But in the case of the verses which are entirely clear, they have no chance of doing that, so that is clear proof against them. Hence Allaah says: “seeking Al-Fitnah (polytheism and trials)” i.e., to misguide their followers and give them the impression that they are using evidence from the Qur’aan to support their bid’ah (innovation). This is evidence against them, not for them. It is similar to when the Christians argue that the Qur’aan says that ‘Eesa (Jesus) is a Spirit from God and His Word that He bestowed upon Maryam (Mary), but they ignore the verses in which Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):

He [‘Eesa (Jesus)] was not more than a slave. We granted Our Favour to him …”

[al-Zukhruf 43:59] 

“Verily, the likeness of ‘Eesa (Jesus) before Allaah is the likeness of Adam. He created him from dust, then (He) said to him: ‘Be!’ — and he was”

[Aal ‘Imraan 3:59]

THIS IS EXACTLY WHAT ARE YOU DOING, YOU have increased me in my faith. Thank you, this verse is PRECISELY describng you, you try to find interpretations that suit YOU, NOWHERE does it state that the Qur'an must be taken literally. It is talking about how people will try to find interpretations that Suit them

And why do you mention verse: 33:36 and 4:14

And Allah knows best

Him: which translation is it from ?

The translation you are using is FULL of human commentary. Is that what you call "more PRECISE"?

So my question is, the brackets they use, [] is that commentary of the translation? or is the bracket about when it is taken in context?

How do we refute someone who says that at-Taariq 86:6-7 does not mention the Ovum or Ovary or egg cells?

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