Answering Christianity Research Center

I get why Allah uses past tense for future events now but I do not get why Allah says "وَكَانَ اللهُ سَمِيْعًا عَلِيْمًا" (Allah WAS hearing and knowing). But Allah is always hearing and knowing. Like the Day of Judgement will come to pass, which is why it is past tense, but Allah being hearing and knowing will never come to pass because He is always hearing and knowing and those are His Attributes. So please explain to me why Allah uses كَانَ for Himself when His Attributes are always there.

Jazakallah Khayran for answering the questions. I guess you have to send your daughter to Islamic schools. And you have to be really careful.

Everything has been answered but now I have one question. I thought Muhammad memorized the whole quran, wasn't he a hafiz?

Assalamu Alaykum everyone,
I was reading the Quran and when I reached quran 2:240 which says, "Those of you who die leaving widows should bequeath for them a year’s maintenance without forcing them out. But if they choose to leave, you are not accountable for what they reasonably decide for themselves. And Allah is Almighty, All-Wise," guess what happened. The footnote mentioned our enemy, abrogation, was supposed to eat this verse but forgot because this ruling was replaced by 2:234. 2:234 says, "As for those of you who die and leave widows behind, let them observe a waiting period of four months and ten days. When they have reached the end of this period, then you are not accountable for what they decide for themselves in a reasonable manner. And Allah is All-Aware of what you do."

Two different rulings. One says if a husband dies then the will is that wives will be provided for a year. The other one says to observe a waiting period of 4 months and ten days and then do whatever they want. Also for the 2:240 verse, the wife can do whatever she wants whenever but the 2:234 verse says to wait for 4 months and ten. And know most scholars believe that 2:234 abrogated 2:240. But there is supposed to be no abrogations! That is 1 part of this question.

Part 2 Surah A'ala Verses 6-7 say, "We will have you recite ˹the Quran, O  Prophet,˺ so you will not forget ˹any of it˺, unless Allah wills otherwise. He surely knows what is open and what is hidden."Why did it say "unless Allah wills otherwise?" The footnote is saying that this means God will make the Prophet forget abrogated rulings. But there should be no abrogations!

Part 3 This is about 4:15-16, which you claim refer to lesbians and gays. "˹As for˺ those of your women who commit illegal intercourse—call four witnesses from among yourselves. If they testify, confine the offenders to their homes until they die or Allah ordains a ˹different˺ way for them. And the two among you men who commit this sin—discipline them. If they repent and mend their ways, relieve them. Surely Allah is ever Accepting of Repentance, Most Merciful."

"Or Allah ordains a different way for them," this prompted scholars to say that this verse is about man-woman adultery and that this verse was going to be abrogated because Allah will ordain a different way. They believed this verse was abrogated by 24:2, which talks about flogging 100 times the adulters. But there is supposed to be no abrogation, so can you explain why it says "Or Allah ordains a different way for them" and why this verse is actually referring to homosexuals and not man-woman adultery?

Please, please address and answer each part

Jazakumullah Khayran

Wa Alaykumu Assalam brother Osama.

Well I think Brother Osama proved somewhere that Rashad Khalifa removed 9:128-129 in his translation of the Quran but did not remove them in the number 19 miracle calculation.  He pretended to remove them in his number 19 calculation of the Quran.

The ONLY verse in the Quran that talks about Baal is 37:125 and it is when Prophet Ilyaas (Elijah) rebuked his people for worshipping Baal.

"Do you call on Baal, and abandon the Best of creators?"

اَتَدْعُوْنَ بَعْلًا وَّتَذَرُوْنَ اَحْسَنَ الْخَالِقِيْنَ

This is, as I said, the only verse in the Quran that addresses Baal. There is no place (Islamic sources or Quran) that says Allah is Baal. So, I think Osama, you should add this Verse to your article and say this is the only Verse in the Quran that talks about Baal to spit in the infidels' faces even more.

So Yahweh discontinued using Baal. I ignored the Book of Isaiah because I just assumed that it would be the same context that Yahweh was going to be called husband instead of "master" But your explanation makes sense (that Yahweh called himself Baal before) . And by the way, I like your term toiletianity. Its funny how you come up with new words like these.