Answering Christianity Research Center

السلام عليكم ورحمة الله وبركاته

So far we have covered two types of sound/strong verbs, simple and doubled root. Now we will cover the third and last type of sound verb–hamzated verbs. As the name suggests, HAMZAted, hamzated verbs are verbs with a hamza as one of its letters. It could be the first letter, the middle letter, or the last letter. For example, a verb with a hamza in the beginning is أَكَلَ (he ate). A verb with a hamza in the middle is سَأَلَ (he asked). And a verb with a hamza in the last letter is قَرَأَ (he read). Now, these verbs are perfectly normal to conjugate. They are like simple sound verbs. For example, the past tense third person masculine plural form of أَكَلَ is أَكَلُوا and the present tense third person masculine singular form is يَأْكُلُ. As for سَأَلَ, same thing. The past tense third person masculine plural form is سَأَلُوا and the present tense third person masculine singular form is يَسْأَلُ. Same thing for قَرَأَ, it is قَرَأُوا and يَقْرَأُ. As you can see, the conjugations for these verbs are normal like simple sound verbs. The ONLY exception to this normal behavior is the present tense first person singular for أَكَلَ and any other hamzated verbs that starts with a hamza. The first person singular for أَكَلَ is آكُلُ, not أَأْكُلُ like you would expect. The hamza in آكُلُ is pronounced with a madd; it is pronounced aaakulu (not a'kulu). That is the only irregularity for hamzated verbs in the categories we learned so far. There are other irregularities with hamzated verbs such as in the imperative mood but we didn't learn it yet so its not important for now. Well that's all for this lesson.

السلام عليكم ورحمة الله وبركاته

I have not been here for half a year but now we will continue from where we left off.

So last topic, we conjugated كَتَبَ, a simple sound verb. This topic, I will show the three different shapes simple sound verbs can have. The different shapes depend on the vowel of the second root letter of the verb, which can either be fatha, dhamma, or kasra. Usually, Arabs use the verb فَعَلَ (to do) as the dummy verb, so we will use this verb.

The three different shapes are: فَعَلَ (ex. كَتَبَ), فَعِلَ (ex. لَعِبَ), and فَعُلَ (ex. قَرُبَ).

Now, when verbs in the form of فَعَلَ (fatha on second root letter) are conjugated into the present tense, the second root letter can have any of the three vowels on it depending on which verb it is. For example, كَتَبَ (he wrote) is conjugated into يَكْتُبُ (he writes) with a dhamma on the second root letter, thus following the pattern يَفْعُلُ. Now the verb جَلَسَ (he sat) is conjugated into يَجْلِسُ (he sits) with a kasra on the second root letter, following the pattern يَفْعِلُ. Finally, the verb فَعَلَ (he did) itself is conjugated into يَفْعَلُ (he does) with a fatha on the second root letter, following the form يَفْعَلُ (obviously).

As you can see, verbs of the form فَعَلَ can be conjugated into three different shapes in the present tense. There is no method (that I know of) of knowing which verbs get conjugated into which form in the present tense. The shape each verb becomes in the present tense form has to be memorized by heart manually.

Now moving on to verbs in the shape of فَعِلَ. When verbs of these shapes are conjugated into the present tense, they either take the pattern of يَفْعَلُ or يَفْعِلُ. For example, the verb لَعِبَ (he played) becomes يَلْعَبُ (he plays) with a fatha on the second root letter, following the model يَفْعَلُ, while the verb حَسِبَ (he thought) becomes يَحْسِبُ (he thinks) with a kasra on the second root letter, following the model يَفْعِلُ. (*NOTE: حَسِبَ is one of those verbs that can either be conjugated into يَحْسِبُ or يَحْسَبُ, so it follows both possible patterns it can take in the present tense form.)

Now for verbs with this shape (فَعِلَ), you also have to memorize by heart which form it will take in the present tense. However, for this one there are only two forms it can take, in contrast to the three forms of فَعَلَ shaped verbs. So this should be easier to memorize by heart than the last one.

Finally, the last shape a verb can have in the past tense, فَعُلَ. This one does not require any memorizing manually. You just need to know that verbs of these shape will be in the form of يَفْعُلُ in the present tense with a dhamma on the second root letter. The second root letter is dhamma in the past tense as well as present tense. For example, the verb قَرُبَ (he was near) is conjugated into يَقْرُبُ (he is near).

So this one is easy.

Last thing I want to mention before I am done with this topic, simple sound verbs aren't the only verbs with different possible shapes. Other verbs also have different possible shapes.

السلام عليكم

السلام عليكم ورحمة الله وبركاته
Last topic we said verbs are marked with 7 different categories. Now I will tell you which categories we will discuss these days. We will discuss tenses, persons, numbers, and genders for sure now and in the near days inshallah. We may discuss voices in the near days. We may or may not discuss moods in the near future (but we will definitely discuss the imperative mood).  We will most likely not discuss forms EVER (that's because I find them very complicated and hard, lol). (*NOTE: Just because I won't discuss some things doesn't mean that you can't research it yourself, if you really want to know.*)

We will talk about form I verbs, because they are the normal verbs (for me, lol). But forms are out of the picture so I will pretend as if they don't even exist. First of all, in verb conjugation, verbs are divided into 2 categories, sound and weak, which in turn are divided into three categories each. Sound verbs are divided into simple sound verbs, hamzated verbs, and doubled root verbs. Weak verbs are divided into hollow, defective, and assimilated verbs. In this topic, we will discuss simple sound verbs only and conjugate them into all tenses, persons, and numbers.

Simple sound verbs are those verbs that have 3 letters without any "weak" letters, which are ا،و،ي. They are verbs like كَتَبَ (to write) and فَتَحَ (to open).

First we will conjugate a verb in the past tense. We will choose the verb كَتَبَ (to write). كَتَبَ is actually the singular past tense third person masculine form of the verb and literally means "he wrote" instead of "to write." In the Arabic dictionary, verbs are represented by the singular past tense third person masculine form.  So in the past tense, letters are added to the END of the verb (suffix), when conjugating. We do not look at the beginning of the verb AT ALL in past tense.

Let us start conjugating:

Third person singular

كَتَبَ: He wrote
كَتَبَتْ: She wrote

Third person dual

كَتَبَا: They (m.) wrote
كَتَبَتَا: They (f.) wrote

Third person plural

كَتَبُوا: They (m.) wrote
كَتَبْنَ: They (f.) wrote

Second person singular

كَتَبْتَ: You (m.) wrote
كَتَبْتِ: You (f.) wrote

Second person dual

كَتَبْتُمَا: You (m. or f.) wrote

Second person plural

كَتَبْتُمْ: You (m.) wrote
كَتَبْتُنَّ: You (f.) wrote

First person singular

كَتَبْتُ: I wrote

First person dual and plural

كَتَبْنَا: We wrote

So now we are done with the past tense. We will move on to the present tense. In the present tense, you add a letter to the BEGINNING of the verb (prefix) and sometimes you also add letters to the end of the verb (suffix). Lets conjugate:

Third person singular

يَكْتُبُ: He writes
تَكْتُبُ: She writes

Third person dual

يَكْتُبَانِ: They (m.) write
تَكْتُبَانِ: They (f.) write

Third person plural

يَكْتُبُوْنَ: They (m.) write
يَكْتُبْنَ: They (f.) write

Second person singular

تَكْتُبُ: You (m.) write
تَكْتُبِيْنَ: You (f.) write

Second person dual

تَكْتُبَانِ: You (m. or f.) write

Second person plural

تَكْتُبُوْنَ: You (m.) write
تَكْتُبْنَ: You (f.) write

First person singular

اَكْتُبُ: I write

First person dual and plural

نَكْتُبُ: We write

Now we are done with the present tense. We will move on to future tense. The future tense is easy, just take the appropriate present tense verb and add a سَ or the word سَوْفَ before it. Let us start:

Third person singular

 سَيَكْتُبُ : He will write
 سَتَكْتُبُ :She will write

Third person dual

سَيَكْتُبَانِ: They (m.) will write
سَتَكْتُبَانِ: They (f.) will write

Third person plural

سَيَكْتُبُوْنَ: They (m.) will write
سَيَكْتُبْنَ: They (f.) will write

Second person singular

سَتَكْتُبُ: You (m.) will write
سَتَكْتُبِيْنَ: You (f.) will write

Second person dual

سَتَكْتُبَانِ: You (m. or f.) will write

Second person plural

سَتَكْتُبُوْنَ: You (m.) will write
سَتَكْتُبْنَ: You (f.) will write

First person singular

سَاَكْتُبُ: I will write

First person dual and plural

سَنَكْتُبُ: We will write

Now we are done with all tenses.

Let me give you a trick to remember the second person of the past tense. Just use the word اَنْتَ (you m.) as the model.

• اَنْتَ كَتَبْتَ (you [m.] write)
• اَنْتِ كَتَبْتِ (you [f.] write)
• اَنْتُمَا كَتَبْتُمَا (you [m. or f. dual] write)
• اَنْتُمْ كَتَبْتُمْ (you [m. plural] write)
• اَنْتُنَّ كَتَبْتُنَّ (you [f. plural] write)
  
  

Now I shall tell you a trick for the present tense. For the present tense you only use the letters ا،ن،ي،ت as prefixes. ا is only for first person singular (I), ن is only for first person plural (We), ت is for all of second person, and ي is for all of third person (except for the feminine singular and dual, which uses ت instead of ي).

So I shall end this topic now.

Bye.

Assalamu Alaykum,
I just want to ask why does the Quran refer to future and present events as past tense? There are many examples, like Surah 56:1 is one of them: "When the Occurance occurs," إِذَا وَقَعَتِ الْوَاقِعَةُ

The word used here is وَقَعَتْ, which is actually a past tense verb which means "occured" so the literal meaning would be "When the Occurance occured," instead of "occurs". So why does the Quran talk about the Day of Judgment in the past tense instead of the future tense?

Also, Surah 4:148 says, "Allah does not like negative thoughts to be voiced—except by those who have been wronged. Allah is All-Hearing, All-Knowing."

لَا يُحِبُّ اللهُ الْجَهْرَ بِالسُّوْءِ مِنَ الْقَوْلِ إِلَّا مَنْ ظُلِمَ وَكَانَ اللهُ سَمِيْعًا عَلِيْمًا

The word used for "is" in "Allah is" is كَانَ, which is actually a past tense verb (can it be used in the present tense?)"was". So the literal meaning of وَكَانَ الله is "Allah was," instead of "Allah is". But Allah is always hearing and knowing. Instead of كَانَ, the word could have been يَكُونُ (no?), which is the present tense "is". So why does Allah use past tense verbs to describe  things that are in the present or future?

Assalamu Alaykum,

I have a question about cases of fighting. In the Quran, fighting is only for "those who fight you." (Quran 2:190)

[2:190]"Fight in the cause of Allah ˹only˺ against those who wage war against you, but do not exceed the limits. Allah does not like transgressors.

[2:191]Kill them wherever you come upon them and drive them out of the places from which they have driven you out. For persecution is far worse than killing. And do not fight them at the Sacred Mosque unless they attack you there. If they do so, then fight them—that is the reward of the disbelievers."

The problem is that what if in one place Muslims are being oppressed not by physical harm but other ways, like forcing them to eat pork, taking the Quran away from them, etc.? Like basically, the kuffar are not fighting them but are oppressing them in other ways. Now lets also say that the Muslims in that place cannot immigrate to a new land for financial or other reasons. Is it permissible to fight these kuffar until they stop oppression, because these kuffar did not fight them physically (so this would make Muslims start the physical fighting first)? Because as I posted the verse of the Quran that only says to "fight those who fight you," this verse makes it sound like Muslims cannot fight those who did not physically fight them first. So does this mean Muslims must stay passive if the kuffar only oppress Muslims in other ways besides physical fighting?

Salam,
I have been thinking this for a quite long time. I have heard that Ummi does not mean "illiterate" but "one who has no knowledge of the Book (Gentile)." On top of that, I have come across Verses like 3:20 and 62:2. Quran 3:20 says:

"So if they argue with you ˹O Prophet˺, say, 'I have submitted myself to Allah, and so have my followers.' And ask those who were given the Scripture and the illiterate ˹people˺ 'Have you submitted yourselves ˹to Allah˺?' If they submit, they will be ˹rightly˺ guided. But if they turn away, then your duty is only to deliver ˹the message˺. And Allah is All-Seeing of ˹His˺ servants."

This verse mentioned the People of the Book and "the illiterate" people. Does this mean that all the pagans of Arabia were illiterate? And if all of them were not, this Verse makes it sound like the Prophet will only guide the People of the Book and the illiterates (only) from among the pagans of Arabia (the literate of the pagans of Arabia will be left out from guidance).
Also, Gentiles are the opposite of the People of the Book so the Quran most likely wants Ummi to mean Gentile. Furthermore, Quran 62:2 says:

"He is the One Who raised for the illiterate ˹people˺ a messenger from among themselves—reciting to them His revelations, purifying them, and teaching them the Book and wisdom, for indeed they had previously been clearly astray—"

Again, Prophet Muhammad was raised with people that are literally illiterate? This Verse again makes it sound like all pagans of Arabia were illiterate. The "illiterate" part is rather metaphorical I think. It does not really mean the pagans of Arabia were illiterate. This means that they were illiterate in the sense that they had no Divine Revelation, which basically would mean a Gentile.

Also, this raises another question. Does that mean the Prophet was also not illiterate? This means that the Prophet was just a Gentile before Revelation? Also the first Verse of Surah Alaq tells everyone to read. If the Prophet was preaching Surah Alaq and being illiterate at the same time, would not that be hypocritical? Probably the Prophet was illiterate then became literate because of the Revelation or the Prophet was always literate?

Assalamu Alaykum Brothers,
In Suratul Maidah Verse 5 it says:

"Today all good, pure foods have been made lawful for you. Similarly, the food of the People of the Book is permissible for you(وطعام الذين اوتوا الكتاب حل لكم)and yours is permissible for them. And ˹permissible for you in marriage˺ are chaste believing women as well as chaste women of those given the Scripture before you—as long as you pay them their dowries in wedlock, neither fornicating nor taking them as mistresses. And whoever rejects the faith, all their good deeds will be void ˹in this life˺ and in the Hereafter they will be among the losers."

This verse says that meat sacrificed by the Jews or Christians (people of the book) is Halal for us Muslims. I heard we could eat Kosher food but we can't eat the Christians' food. That's why we have a rule for Halal and Haram meat. The problem is if we could eat the food of the Christians, that means we could eat the McDonald's Big Mac and meat burgers! That doesn't make sense though because Muslims believe that McDonald's and Burger King and whatever are Haram because they are not sacrificed in the ritual Muslim way! So what does this verse actually mean?

Assalamu Alaykum,
Brother, why did Abu Bakr conquer Iran? Didnt he force his religion on them? Also why is the Prophet's letter to Oman threatening?

"“In the name of Allah, the Beneficent, the Merciful. From Mohammed, the messenger of Allah, to Jaifar and Abd, sons of Al Julanda. Peace is upon him who follows the guidance. I am calling both of you, in the name of Islam. You will be safe if you submit to Islam.

I am the Messenger of Allah to all people warn all living that Islam will prevail. I hope you will accept Islam, but if you do not, then you will lose your country, and my horsemen will invade your territory and my prophecy will dominate your country”."