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Messages - Qualities of Allah

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« on: April 06, 2021, 02:20:12 PM »
Jazakallah for the reply brother Osama. I also just found another answer that says that if someone is bad you cannot talk bad about him unless he causes a lot of oppression to people and you want to say the bad things about him in order to WARN them from him. Is that interpretation right?

« on: April 06, 2021, 08:17:47 AM »
What does 4:148 mean, "Allah does not like negative thoughts to be voiced—except by those who have been wronged. Allah is All-Hearing, All-Knowing."

What does this verse mean by "except those who have been wronged?" I read a tafsir and I still did not get it. It said something like "Allah does not like backbiting except when someone oppressed seeks counseling." For some reason, I still do not get it. What does that mean? Like when someone gets bullied and goes to a therapist they can say negative things about the bully?

Even if he learned how to read and write, he would still need scribes.  That is assuming that the Prophet learned how to read and write quickly.  I am not sure where you're going with this type of questioning.  The Glorious Quran's Text is Miraculous:

It is totally irrelevant to the Miracle of the Glorious Quran's Text, Numerical and Scientific Miracles whether the Prophet was illiterate or not.  I personally don't really care.  Can any of your infidels refute the Glorious Quran's Numerical and Scientific Miracles?

No one could:

You could not have planned and wrote the Miraculous Text of the Quran.  The 1000s of numerical and scientific Miracles, and the miracle of the Text Itself and how Words are spelled in certain ways to correlate with certain timings or Numerical Miracle, 100% testify that the Book was indeed from Allah Almighty and none else.  Even your best scribes of today would not have been able to preserve the Glorious Quran like this.  The Quran has 1000s of these Miracles.

So instead of derailing your brain and salvation to Hell with rotten infidels' nonsense, try to see the Glorious Quran in Its own Miracle.  Who really cares who was literate and illiterate back then.

Bible and corrupt books background:

The infidels you speak with come from bible and similar corrupt books background:

Such people can never understand the Glorious Quran, the ONE AND ONLY Divine Book on earth.

Just wanted to let you know that I dont speak with anyone at all through social media, let alone infidels (The only place in the internet I communicate is this website). I come up with these questions from my brain and sometimes Islamic articles and their different opinions and from them ask questions to you and from them I ask you questions. I asked this question because there was a difference of opinion among Islamic websites of what Ummi really means. But thanks to you, I now know that Ummi can have various meanings, so jazakallah for answering this question.

If you believed that the Prophet became literate, then why did you say in one post that the Prophet had many scribes to write letters? Would he not write them by himself?

« on: April 05, 2021, 09:22:05 AM »
I have been thinking this for a quite long time. I have heard that Ummi does not mean "illiterate" but "one who has no knowledge of the Book (Gentile)." On top of that, I have come across Verses like 3:20 and 62:2. Quran 3:20 says:

"So if they argue with you ˹O Prophet˺, say, 'I have submitted myself to Allah, and so have my followers.' And ask those who were given the Scripture and the illiterate ˹people˺ 'Have you submitted yourselves ˹to Allah˺?' If they submit, they will be ˹rightly˺ guided. But if they turn away, then your duty is only to deliver ˹the message˺. And Allah is All-Seeing of ˹His˺ servants."

This verse mentioned the People of the Book and "the illiterate" people. Does this mean that all the pagans of Arabia were illiterate? And if all of them were not, this Verse makes it sound like the Prophet will only guide the People of the Book and the illiterates (only) from among the pagans of Arabia (the literate of the pagans of Arabia will be left out from guidance).
Also, Gentiles are the opposite of the People of the Book so the Quran most likely wants Ummi to mean Gentile. Furthermore, Quran 62:2 says:

"He is the One Who raised for the illiterate ˹people˺ a messenger from among themselves—reciting to them His revelations, purifying them, and teaching them the Book and wisdom, for indeed they had previously been clearly astray—"

Again, Prophet Muhammad was raised with people that are literally illiterate? This Verse again makes it sound like all pagans of Arabia were illiterate. The "illiterate" part is rather metaphorical I think. It does not really mean the pagans of Arabia were illiterate. This means that they were illiterate in the sense that they had no Divine Revelation, which basically would mean a Gentile.

Also, this raises another question. Does that mean the Prophet was also not illiterate? This means that the Prophet was just a Gentile before Revelation? Also the first Verse of Surah Alaq tells everyone to read. If the Prophet was preaching Surah Alaq and being illiterate at the same time, would not that be hypocritical? Probably the Prophet was illiterate then became literate because of the Revelation or the Prophet was always literate?

« on: April 03, 2021, 03:12:58 PM »
Jazakallah for the answer.

« on: April 02, 2021, 09:33:10 PM »
Assalamu Alaykum,
In Quran 2:98, it says:

من كان عدوا لله وملائكته ورسله وجبريل وميكال فان الله عدو للكافرين
The word for Michael is ميكال here. However Michael is sometimes spelled ميكائيل instead of ميكال. Like for example, in one dua it says:

اللهم رب جبرائيل، وميكائيل، وإسرافيل، فاطر السماوات والأرض، عالم الغيب والشهادة، أنت تحكم بين عبادك فيما كانوا فيه يختلفون، اهدني لما اختلف فيه من الحق بإذنك، إنك تهدي من تشاء إلى صراط مستقيم

In this dua, Michael is spelled ميكائيل instead of ميكال.  Also, every article I saw writes ميكائيل. The only place that Michael is spelled ميكال is in the Quran. Now why is that?

Jazakallah brother Osama. My questions have been answered.

The Muslim is supposed to pronounce Allah Almighty's Holy Name on everything he/she eats, and before anything they do.  So that suffices pronouncing Allah Almighty's Name. 

Again, Christians existed during the days these Noble Verses came down.  They never pronounced Allah Almighty's Holy Name on their food. The fact that the Glorious Quran gave us permissions to eat from their food (except what Islam prohibits, like pork) shows that the issue of prohibition and permission was addressed.

Certainly Islam considers many of them as polytheist trinitarian pagans.  But their food is Halal for us, and Muslim men are also allowed to marry from their women.  This is not the case with none-people-of-the-Book pagan food and women.

Sorry to keep distracting and bothering, but tafsir ibn Kathir said that the Christians (in the Prophet's time) used to pronounce Allah's name on their meat. Here is his tafsir,

"(The food of the People of the Scripture is lawful to you..) meaning, their slaughtered animals, as Ibn `Abbas, Abu Umamah, Mujahid, Sa`id bin Jubayr, `Ikrimah, `Ata', Al-Hasan, Makhul, Ibrahim An-Nakha`i, As-Suddi and Muqatil bin Hayyan stated. This ruling, that the slaughtered animals of the People of the Book are permissible for Muslims, is agreed on by the scholars, because the People of the Book believe that slaughtering for other than Allah is prohibited. They mention Allah's Name upon slaughtering their animals, even though they have deviant beliefs about Allah that do not befit His majesty.

So now I have two questions,

1. (Let me quote my last post)
Yes that has answered my questions. But one last question, this verse (5:5) says that we can eat the people of the book's food and they can eat ours. But Jews don't believe in eating Halal, they only eat Kosher (if they actually care about their religion). So why does this Verse make a generalization that they can eat our food when they can't (this doesn't apply to Christians, only Jews)?

2. The Christians did used to pronounce Allah's name on their food before, but not anymore according to Tafsir ibn Kathir. So why did you say that Christians never pronounced Allah's name on their meat in the Prophet's times?

Yes that has answered my questions. But one last question, this verse (5:5) says that we can eat the people of the book's food and they can eat ours. But Jews don't believe in eating Halal, they only eat Kosher (if they actually care about their religion). So why does this Verse make a generalization that they can eat our food when they can't (this doesn't apply to Christians, only Jews)?

Ok jazakallah for that. But I realized one thing. Lets say you eat from a Christian restaurant. Don't they cook chicken and pork in the same grill? Wouldn't the chicken be contaminated with the pork?

So does that mean meat sacrificed by Jews or Christians that have no name pronounced on them is Halal (and if GOD'S name is pronounced then it is definitely Halal) as long as you say Bismillah before eating? And that means meat sacrificed by pagans in the name of false gods like Zeus, Athena, Bob, and others are all Haram, right? If I am wrong on one part, correct me. If I am right, then thanks and jazakallah for answering my question.

Sorry I forgot to take off the red font

But I think the Christians have to be religious at least, don't they? Anyway, do all Christians clean the blood of their meat? Because most Christians are not religious.

Another thing, what about these Verses (6:118-121):

"[6:118]So eat only of what is slaughtered in Allah’s Name if you truly believe in His revelations.

[6:119]Why should you not eat of what is slaughtered in Allah’s Name when He has already explained to you what He has forbidden to you—except when compelled by necessity? Many ˹deviants˺ certainly mislead others by their whims out of ignorance. Surely your Lord knows the transgressors best.

[6:120]Shun all sin—open and secret. Indeed, those who commit sin will be punished for what they earn.

[6:121]Do not eat of what is not slaughtered in Allah’s Name. For that would certainly be ˹an act of˺ disobedience. Surely the devils whisper to their ˹human˺ associates to argue with you. If you were to obey them, then you ˹too˺ would be polytheists."

This raises another question: Do the People of the Book sacrifice their meat pronouncing the name of God? Even if they did, the Jews' god is the same as our god but the Christians' god is not the same as ours! Only 1/3 of their god is the same as ours! I know that your article said the trinity existed during the Prophet's times but the Verses in Surah Anaam say to eat meat sacrificed only in God's name. I understand why the meat sacrificed by the Jews would be Halal (because their god and ours is the same) but I don't understand why the Christians meat would be Halal (because they have 2 more gods and Surah Anaam says to only eat meat sacrificed in God's name!)

It seems like there is a contradiction between Verses 5:5 and 6:118-121 but I know there isn't! Please help me clear this confusion up!

Assalamu Alaykum Brothers,
In Suratul Maidah Verse 5 it says:

"Today all good, pure foods have been made lawful for you. Similarly, the food of the People of the Book is permissible for you(وطعام الذين اوتوا الكتاب حل لكم)and yours is permissible for them. And ˹permissible for you in marriage˺ are chaste believing women as well as chaste women of those given the Scripture before you—as long as you pay them their dowries in wedlock, neither fornicating nor taking them as mistresses. And whoever rejects the faith, all their good deeds will be void ˹in this life˺ and in the Hereafter they will be among the losers."

This verse says that meat sacrificed by the Jews or Christians (people of the book) is Halal for us Muslims. I heard we could eat Kosher food but we can't eat the Christians' food. That's why we have a rule for Halal and Haram meat. The problem is if we could eat the food of the Christians, that means we could eat the McDonald's Big Mac and meat burgers! That doesn't make sense though because Muslims believe that McDonald's and Burger King and whatever are Haram because they are not sacrificed in the ritual Muslim way! So what does this verse actually mean?

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