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Messages - Sh Truthseaker

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AsSalamu 'Alaykum

I think I was wrong:
I mean that system of numbering of verses where present at the time The Holy Qur'an was revealed!

This book,titled "An Introduction to Sciences of the Quran" gives us a lot of information about the problem:

Quote from: Page 154

« on: September 30, 2017, 12:06:54 PM »
AsSalamu 'Alaykum

I think this Hadis would help us understand what the 'Ringing of a bell' means in that Hadis:

Quote from:  Sahih al-Bukhari 3215
Narrated Aisha:
Al Harith bin Hisham asked the Prophet, "How does the divine inspiration come to you?" He replied, "In all these ways: The Angel sometimes comes to me with a voice which resembles the sound of a ringing bell, and when this state abandons me, I remember what the Angel has said, and this type of Divine Inspiration is the hardest on me; and sometimes the Angel comes to me in the shape of a man and talks to me, and I understand and remember what he says."

The above Hadis says the Angel(A)'s voice sounded like that.

Allah Knows Best.


Assalamu 'Alaykum.
Recently there was a debate b.w me,some brothers and some trolls on FB.(*It is still going on,that troll is repeating the same questions which I answered!looks like sign of Victory!)
I will quote parts of the posts and comments.
This is a part of a Brother's post:

Quote from: Brother Driss Drizen EL Mouden 
..........For a long time many people believed that Moses wrote the five books called Torah in the Bible. But now it is widely known that Moses could not have written those books in their entirety. One evidence for this is that Chapter 34 of the book of Deuteronomy describes the death and burial of Moses, and how the people mourned for him after his death. Obviously, Moses did not write that passage. Biblical scholars also acknowledge that the present composition of the Psalms cannot in its entirety be traced back to David.........


And a part of the troll's comment:

Quote from: Troll Nana Niezer
" ........One evidence is chapter 34 of the Book of Deuteronomy and describes the death and burial of Moses and how the people mourn for him after his death. Obviously Moses did not write those passages. Biblical scholars also acknowledges the the Psalms cannot in its entirety be traced to David. I've answers to those questions but do you also have answers to Quran60:13,"Believers (Muslims)! Do not make friends with those who have incurred the wrath of Allah..." Definately it isn't Allah speaking here. It's somebody advising. Read Quran66:3-5,"The Prophet once told one of his wives something in confidence. She did not keep it secret and God informed him of this;...." this is also not Allah reciting this ayah?........

I made another post in which I replied to all her comments.Here is a small part of that :

Quote from: My Response
...........You are asking ”this is also not Allah reciting this ayah?” and saying “Definately it isn't Allah speaking here.”.
I don't exactly know why you say so,but I think you are confused because of the use of third-person speech.
 It is one of the rhetorical styles of the Quran .
More info about usage of 1st person,2nd person,3rd person,singular and plural by Allah for Himself :

But the issue raised by brother Driss is not like what you are saying.
Christians believe that the first five books in the Bible are written by Moses(A),and they believe it is the Torah. Deuteronomy is the last one in those five books.
Now I am Quoting from Chapter 34,Book of Deuteronomy,Holy Bible,Revised Standard Version.
[So Moses the servant of the Lord DIED there in the land of Moab, according to the word of the Lord, ](Deuteronomy 34:5)
Moses(A) died?Is this the words from a book WRITTEN by Moses(A)?Moses(A) probably didn't come back from death to write this.So someone else wrote this.
[He buried him in Moab, in the valley opposite Beth Peor, but to this day no one knows where his grave is. ](Deuteronomy 34:6)
So this was written after the burial of Moses(A).Certainly Moses(A) didn't write anything after his burial.If he(A) had stretched his hand out from the grave to write this and give this,People could have found where that grave is.But the verse says that 'no one knows where his grave is.' ................
(link: )

The answer is simple.
The use of 1st,2nd,3rd persons and singular and plural ,etc are just one of the rhetorical styles of the Holy Qur'an .
visit the links I gave that troll for more info about this.
Hope it helps.

Assalamu 'Alaikum
I just had a quick of the PDF file in the link given by brother Sharif.
The main thing said in it is:
"Moon God Moon God Moon God
 Moon God Moon God Moon God
 Moon God Moon God Moon God
 Moon God Moon God Moon God"

One of their classical trolls.
Please check these:
I>Yah the moon God:

4.    (There's a warning abt a malware in this site.Idk what happened.It was available earlier

II>Pagan Origins of Christianity:

Assalamu 'Alaikum.
This was funny and there was something funnier than this here:
Please check it.

Thank You brothers,
Now please tell me about rest of it.
The verse says "Bayna Yadayhi".It means "Between his/its hands".I  want to conform whether it is an Arabic idiom or metaphor for saying "Before" or "In front of".

Assalamu 'Alaikum.

1)Main question:      WHEN,HOW and by WHOM the Thaurath an Injeel got corrupted?

Other questions:
2)Are they the same as found in old manuscripts?
3)Does the Holy Qur'an say they can't be corrupted?

I have many similar and related doubts which doesn't come to my mind right now.I hope I will get details from here.

I debated with a Christian on FB and I showed him few simple examples of contradictions in Bible and claimed that Bible is corrupted.But he said that the Qur'an says the Thaurath and Injeel can'tbe corrupted,and asked when and by whom they were corrupted,and told we are just repeating what we were taught.
He quoted  Al-Ahqaf[46] verse 30    { "They said, "O our people, we have heard a book revealed after Moses, confirming what came before it; it guides (men) to the truth and to a straight path."  }        and said that in Arabic it says "Bayna Yadayhi" which means "Between his hands" and not "Before it" , and said Prophet (S) had Thaurath with him at his time.

I gave an example of Albaqara:66   and told him that "Between his/its hands" is an Arabic idiom which means "In front of" or "before".But he refuses to believe,and says I don't know Arabic.
Who is right,I or he?

When I refuted his claims of Qur'an contradictions using a video of Ahmed Deedat and some links from  ,he spoke badly of brother Osama like he fabricated emails and that he was destroyed in every debate by Christian Prince.
And he also said about Deedat:"This guy prayed to Allah to make who ever was lieing in a debate to be made dumb. Only to be struck with a stroke and remained dumb for the rest of his life. Not a good person to follow sir"

« on: May 27, 2016, 11:53:39 PM »
Asslamu 'Alaikum.

I found another editing in the Bible.

Genesis 24:26:
Arabic text :
فَخَرَّ الرَّجُلُ وَسَجَدَ لِلرَّبِّ
 And the man bowed down his head, and worshipped the Lord

Genesis 22:5
فَقَالَ إِبْرَاهِيمُ لِغُلاَمَيْهِ: «اجْلِسَا أَنْتُمَا ههُنَا مَعَ الْحِمَارِ، وَأَمَّا أَنَا وَالْغُلاَمُ فَنَذْهَبُ إِلَى هُنَاكَ وَنَسْجُدُ، ثُمَّ نَرْجعُ إِلَيْكُمَا
And Abraham said unto his young men, Abide ye here with the ass; and I and the lad will go yonder and worship, and come again to you.

See?Sujood is translated as worship.They can't show it is sujood.They are ashamed to show Muslims Sujood is a form of worship according to Bible.There are many instances where it is translated like that.I found this in the case of Arabic,I didn't check Hebrew or Greak.
I searched in biblegatewayDotCom and Arabic Bible is available here:,3&t=1&b=1&c=1&svn=1&btp=1&stp=0&tx=%da%c8%c7%cf

I also found another Arabic Christian site which criticizes Islam:

Assalamu 'Alaikum
Please check the "Response to criticism" sections in these two websites for more info about "The Qur'an And Slavery"

GENERAL TOPICS | BOARD ANNOUNCEMENTS / Re: 6 or 8 days of creation?
« on: May 23, 2016, 08:12:57 AM »
Assalamu Alaikum.
Here is the answer by Ahmed Deedat:


I don't see any first person manner in the bible dude! Rather, there are direct words of the prophets and unknown authors.

Most of the dialogues in the bible are in this format; "And Moses said unto the Lord..."    "And the Lord said unto Moses..."

I mean that system of numbering of verses where present at the time The Holy Qur'an was revealed!

Assalamu Alaikum Brothers,
Doesn't the Holy Qur'an itself call Surath Al Fathiha "The Repeated Seven(verses)"  -  "Sab'ul Masani"?

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