Show Posts

This section allows you to view all posts made by this member. Note that you can only see posts made in areas you currently have access to.

Messages - Qualities of Allah

Pages: [1] 2 3 4 5 ... 9
« on: July 19, 2021, 05:02:28 PM »
Sorry for the long suspension of this conversation but I am back.

The people of Noah's doom was a time-mark for a Divine Purpose only known to Allah Almighty.  Their doom was to happen so that other Prophets and people were to emerge tall among all of the nations.

Also, seed ذريته of Noah here includes the Prophets that will come after him from the future generations:

‏6:84 ووهبنا له اسحاق ويعقوب كلا هدينا ونوحا هدينا من قبل ومن ذريته داوود وسليمان وايوب ويوسف وموسى وهارون وكذلك نجزي المحسنين

[006:084]  We gave him Isaac and Jacob: all (three) guided: and before him, We guided Noah, and among his progeny, David, Solomon, Job, Joseph, Moses, and Aaron: thus do We reward those who do good:
The Muslims are the seed of Noah:

‏6:133 وربك الغني ذو الرحمة ان يشا يذهبكم ويستخلف من بعدكم مايشاء كما انشاكم من ذرية قوم اخرين

[006:133]  Thy Lord is self-sufficient, full of Mercy: if it were His will, He could destroy you, and in your place appoint whom He will as your successors, even as He raised you up from the posterity of other people.

Are you saying that all the Prophets that came after Noah as well as us Muslims are the metaphorical descendants of Noah? You said Noah's flood was a time mark of a Divine Purpose so that other Prophets from different nations will emerge after him, which makes me think that they are metaphorical descendants of Noah since those prophets cannot be literal descendants because they came from other nations besides Noah's. And, as you said, Q 6:84 says that the seed of Noah are those Prophets that will emerge after him. Again, this makes me think that by "descendants", the Quran meant descendants metaphorically, and not literally.

However, if I misunderstood you and you meant all these Prophets and us Muslims are literal descendants of Noah, then is everyone on Earth currently a descendant of Noah or not? Currently, people convert to Islam and if they were not descendants of Noah before they cannot automatically become a literal descendant of Noah after converting. Or by Muslims, did the Quran mean the Arabs (who became Muslim first) are the descendants of Noah?

Tafsir ibn Kathir says this about this topic, " '(And, his progeny, them We made the survivors.)' All people descended from the offspring of Nuh, peace be upon him.'' There is some hadith that tries to explain this, "Sam (Sam, Ham, and Yafith, apparently the sons of Noah) was the father of the Arabs, Ham was the father of the Ethiopians and Yafith was the father of the Romans.''

What do you think about the hadith and tafsir mentioned above?

« on: June 27, 2021, 09:15:25 PM »
Then why does Quran 37:77 say only Noah's descendants are remaining on Earth if other nations already existed? Shouldn't those nations' descendants also be existing today?

« on: June 27, 2021, 12:47:59 PM »
So according to Quran 37:77 and you, from Noah came the bloodline of Prophets and later all other nations except Noah's perished (not in the Flood but for other reasons)? Because Quran 37:77 says only Noah's descendants are those remaining on Earth.

« on: June 25, 2021, 02:37:32 PM »
Is Noah's flood local or global? I know that you say it is local because why would Allah punish all nations just for one nation? However, the Quran seems to suggest that the flood was global.

[17:003]"O descendants of those We carried [in the ship] with Noah. Indeed, he was a grateful servant."

Why would the Quran say "O descendants of those we carried in the ship with Noah" like Noah and his people were the only ones living on Earth at the time? This seems to suggest that there were no other nations on Earth at the time of Noah except his nation so thats why the flood was global. Moving on:

[37:077]"And We made his (Noah's) descendants those remaining [on the earth]"

This Verse suggests that Noah's descendants are the only ones left on Earth. The last Verse that seems to be clear that the ones on the Ark were the ancestors of everyone on Earth:

[69:011]"Indeed, when the floodwater had overflowed, We carried you in the floating Ark ˹with Noah˺,"

This Verse is saying that WE were carried in the Ark. This means that the ancestors of everyone (and us) on Earth are those who were on the Ark. This shows that there was no other community on Earth except Noah's at that time (because Noah existed towards the beginning of humanity's creation so humans were probably not scattered throughout the Earth yet).

There was another Verse that I found saying something like "if We willed, We would have drowned your ancestors in the Flood" but I forgot where it is now. This Verse was the best in seeming to suggest that the Flood was global but I cannot find it now.

So what do you think about these 3 Verses?

« on: June 22, 2021, 07:56:15 AM »
Lol, thanks for the answers. I can disprove them now even more on the third point. Just discovered that for Verse 31:14,
"And We have commanded people to ˹honour˺ their parents. Their mothers bore them through hardship upon hardship, and their weaning takes two years (عامين). So be grateful to Me and your parents. To Me is the final return."

The word used here was عامين (dual form of عام) which is supposed to mean "good years" according to them. Except literally when the Verse says the mother faced "hardship upon hardship" for two عام, I dont think those عام were "good years". Now if they argue that the baby's weaning in the baby's point of view were part of the "good years", I dont think trying to give the baby other food, they would like to be given food other than breast milk when that is all that it wants.  So that is also hardship.

« on: June 21, 2021, 08:43:28 AM »
Sixth, Verse 29:14 itself says that Noah REMAINED WITH HIS PEOPLE, and not lived, for 1000 minus 50 years, thus "proving" that the Quran never said Noah lived for 950 years.
Finally, they say that after doing the math, 1000 سنة minus 50 عام, which unit should the answer be in, سنة or عام? Thus, they say that just doing simple math here doesn't make sense, "falsyfing" the claim that Noah lived for 950 years. (I find this reasoning to be poor because سنة and عام mean the same thing and are synonyms, so the answer would be in سنة or عام.

The number of Letters and number of years perfectly matching exists throughout the Glorious Quran, and is one of the Quran's beautiful Numerical Miracles phenomenon that were discovered.  Prophet Noah's Chapter is written in exactly 950 Letters.  Not 951 or 949.  Prophet Noah is also the cornerstone of the Glorious Quran's number 19 Miracle.  He is the only Prophet that was given this Divine Honor from Allah Almighty.  This is thoroughly demonstrated with 1000s of scanned images at:

The doomed-to-Hell infidels are bankrupt, and they're on their way to Eternal Destruction.  They think it is laughs and jokes.

Take care,
Osama Abdallah

Yes brother we agree that the Surah Nuh is made of 950 letters but these are Muslims making this claim and they also believe in the Quran. They just say the 950 years things is interpreted differently. So can you shut these hypocrites up by refuting it point by point?

« on: June 18, 2021, 04:01:56 PM »
-Scientifically speaking, it's impossible to determine the age of death of a historical figure whose womb is not examined.
-There is nothing that makes his age of death impossible. Allah is All-powerful.

Jazakumullah for the answer. However they made many points and not just this one.

« on: June 17, 2021, 09:02:17 PM »
Assalamu Alaykum,
The Quran says Noah lived for 950 years in Verse 29:14,
[29:014]"Indeed, We sent Noah to his people, and he remained among them for a thousand years, less fifty. Then the Flood overtook them, while they persisted in wrongdoing."

Some Muslims argue that living for 950 years makes no sense and that is not what Allah meant. They say that Allah is not concerned with ages of people so Allah did not mention the age of Noah and instead Allah said "1000 less fifty" (not 950 directly). They argue that the word used for "years" in "1000 years" is سَنَةٍ, which is associated with bad years and for "minus 50 years" the word used was عَامًا, which is associated with good years. They prove this claim by saying that the use of the word عام is found in Quran 12:49, which reads: "'Then a year (عَامٌ) will come after that when people will receive showers, and in which they will press [grapes].'"

As you can see, the use of عام here denotes a good year where people will receive rains and make wine. And for the word سَنَة, they say that it is found in Quran 5:26: "He said: 'It will proscribed on them for forty years (سَنَةً). They will wander around the earth, so do not worry about such perverse people.'"

Here, the Holy Land is forbidden upon the Jews for 40 years and the word used was سَنَةً. So, those Muslims say that سنة refers to bad years and عام refers to good years. So, Muslims argue that for Noah's case, 1000 سنة is metaphorical and means that it means Noah experienced a lot of bad, oppressed years except only 50 عام, or only a few years of spiritual progress. They say that 1000 years minus 50 years does not mean Muslims just do easy math (1000-50=950) since Allah could have said 950 years directly.

So basically their argument is that 1000 and 50 are metaphorical numbers and not literal, saying that 1000 merely means a lot (of bad years) and 50 means a little (good years). Then they use Verse 29:43 to justify that the Quran was being metaphorical, "These are parables We make up for mankind, though only the learned will use their [powers of] reason."

"These are parables", they say means that Noah's age and many other stories in the Quran are metaphorical and this Verse is especially referring to Noah's age because both verses (the one about Noah's age and the other that says "these are parables") are in the same Surah (Surah Ankabut). Then, they also use Verse 48:23 to prove that lifespans are always the same and they are not getting shorter or longer. The Verse reads: "[This is] the established way of Allah which has occurred before. And never will you find in the way of Allah any change."

So they say Allah's way can not change, as a result lifespans cannot change either because they are part of Allah's way.

Finally, they go back to Verse 29:14 itself, "Indeed, We sent Noah to his people, and he remained among them for a thousand years, less fifty. Then the Flood overtook them, while they persisted in wrongdoing."

They say that it says he "remained" among his people and that it never says "he lived for". So they say that the Quran isn't talking about how long he lived at all.

Ok so here are the summaries of the points they made to prove that Noah did not live 950 years but a normal lifespan:

  • First, living 950 years makes no sense scientifically as scientists say that the lifespan is increasing, not decreasing.
  • Second, Allah is not concerned with the ages of people since it has nothing to do with guiding people.
  • Third, Allah never directly said 950 years but instead said 1000 سنة minus 50 عام. And they "proved" that عام means good years and سنة means bad years using Quran 12:49 and 5:26. They say that 1000 and 50 are metaphorical numbers and just mean that Noah achieved many years of oppression and only a few years of spiritual progress.
  • Fourth, the same chapter where Noah is said to live 950 years says in Verse 43 that God gives parables to mankind, concluding that God "confirms" Noah's age was a parable and not literal.
  • Fifth, Verse 48:23 is used to say that God does not change his way. Thus, "proving" that lifespans were never different and longer before and were always the same as they are part of God's way.
  • Sixth, Verse 29:14 itself says that Noah REMAINED WITH HIS PEOPLE, and not lived, for 1000 minus 50 years, thus "proving" that the Quran never said Noah lived for 950 years.
  • Finally, they say that after doing the math, 1000 سنة minus 50 عام, which unit should the answer be in, سنة or عام? Thus, they say that just doing simple math here doesn't make sense, "falsyfing" the claim that Noah lived for 950 years. (I find this reasoning to be poor because سنة and عام mean the same thing and are synonyms, so the answer would be in سنة or عام.

So these are their points, and is it possible for you to refute all the points they made? Please refute their claim point by point.

Thank you,
Qualities of Allah

Learn Arabic / Verb Conjugation Part I: Simple Sound Verbs (Form I)
« on: June 14, 2021, 02:33:56 PM »
السلام عليكم ورحمة الله وبركاته
Last topic we said verbs are marked with 7 different categories. Now I will tell you which categories we will discuss these days. We will discuss tenses, persons, numbers, and genders for sure now and in the near days inshallah. We may discuss voices in the near days. We may or may not discuss moods in the near future (but we will definitely discuss the imperative mood).  We will most likely not discuss forms EVER (that's because I find them very complicated and hard, lol). (*NOTE: Just because I won't discuss some things doesn't mean that you can't research it yourself, if you really want to know.*)

We will talk about form I verbs, because they are the normal verbs (for me, lol). But forms are out of the picture so I will pretend as if they don't even exist. First of all, in verb conjugation, verbs are divided into 2 categories, sound and weak, which in turn are divided into three categories each. Sound verbs are divided into simple sound verbs, hamzated verbs, and doubled root verbs. Weak verbs are divided into hollow, defective, and assimilated verbs. In this topic, we will discuss simple sound verbs only and conjugate them into all tenses, persons, and numbers.

Simple sound verbs are those verbs that have 3 letters without any "weak" letters, which are ا،و،ي. They are verbs like كَتَبَ (to write) and فَتَحَ (to open).

First we will conjugate a verb in the past tense. We will choose the verb كَتَبَ (to write). كَتَبَ is actually the singular past tense third person masculine form of the verb and literally means "he wrote" instead of "to write." In the Arabic dictionary, verbs are represented by the singular past tense third person masculine form.  So in the past tense, letters are added to the END of the verb (suffix), when conjugating. We do not look at the beginning of the verb AT ALL in past tense.

Let us start conjugating:

Third person singular

كَتَبَ: He wrote
كَتَبَتْ: She wrote

Third person dual

كَتَبَا: They (m.) wrote
كَتَبَتَا: They (f.) wrote

Third person plural

كَتَبُوا: They (m.) wrote
كَتَبْنَ: They (f.) wrote

Second person singular

كَتَبْتَ: You (m.) wrote
كَتَبْتِ: You (f.) wrote

Second person dual

كَتَبْتُمَا: You (m. or f.) wrote

Second person plural

كَتَبْتُمْ: You (m.) wrote
كَتَبْتُنَّ: You (f.) wrote

First person singular

كَتَبْتُ: I wrote

First person dual and plural

كَتَبْنَا: We wrote

So now we are done with the past tense. We will move on to the present tense. In the present tense, you add a letter to the BEGINNING of the verb (prefix) and sometimes you also add letters to the end of the verb (suffix). Lets conjugate:

Third person singular

يَكْتُبُ: He writes
تَكْتُبُ: She writes

Third person dual

يَكْتُبَانِ: They (m.) write
تَكْتُبَانِ: They (f.) write

Third person plural

يَكْتُبُوْنَ: They (m.) write
يَكْتُبْنَ: They (f.) write

Second person singular

تَكْتُبُ: You (m.) write
تَكْتُبِيْنَ: You (f.) write

Second person dual

تَكْتُبَانِ: You (m. or f.) write

Second person plural

تَكْتُبُوْنَ: You (m.) write
تَكْتُبْنَ: You (f.) write

First person singular

اَكْتُبُ: I write

First person dual and plural

نَكْتُبُ: We write

Now we are done with the present tense. We will move on to future tense. The future tense is easy, just take the appropriate present tense verb and add a سَ or the word سَوْفَ before it. Let us start:

Third person singular

 سَيَكْتُبُ : He will write
 سَتَكْتُبُ :She will write

Third person dual

سَيَكْتُبَانِ: They (m.) will write
سَتَكْتُبَانِ: They (f.) will write

Third person plural

سَيَكْتُبُوْنَ: They (m.) will write
سَيَكْتُبْنَ: They (f.) will write

Second person singular

سَتَكْتُبُ: You (m.) will write
سَتَكْتُبِيْنَ: You (f.) will write

Second person dual

سَتَكْتُبَانِ: You (m. or f.) will write

Second person plural

سَتَكْتُبُوْنَ: You (m.) will write
سَتَكْتُبْنَ: You (f.) will write

First person singular

سَاَكْتُبُ: I will write

First person dual and plural

سَنَكْتُبُ: We will write

Now we are done with all tenses.

Let me give you a trick to remember the second person of the past tense. Just use the word اَنْتَ (you m.) as the model.

  • اَنْتَ كَتَبْتَ (you [m.] write)
  • اَنْتِ كَتَبْتِ (you [f.] write)
  • اَنْتُمَا كَتَبْتُمَا (you [m. or f. dual] write)
  • اَنْتُمْ كَتَبْتُمْ (you [m. plural] write)
  • اَنْتُنَّ كَتَبْتُنَّ (you [f. plural] write)

Now I shall tell you a trick for the present tense. For the present tense you only use the letters ا،ن،ي،ت as prefixes. ا is only for first person singular (I), ن is only for first person plural (We), ت is for all of second person, and ي is for all of third person (except for the feminine singular and dual, which uses ت instead of ي).

So I shall end this topic now.


Learn Arabic / Verbs: 7 categories
« on: June 12, 2021, 04:11:23 PM »
السلام عليكم ورحمة الله وبركاته

We have covered family relationships, which are nouns. Now we will do some verbs.

First of all verbs in Arabic are marked with 7 different categories,  which are tenses, voices, forms, numbers, genders, persons, and moods (non-past only). There are:

  • 3 tenses (past, present, future)
  • 2 voices (active, passive)
  • 19 forms (Form I, Form II,...Form XIX)
  • 3 numbers (singular, dual, plural)
  • 3 persons (1st person, 2nd person, 3rd person)
  • 6 moods for non-past only (indicative, jussive, subjunctive, imperative, short energetic, long energetic)
  • 2 genders (masculine, feminine)

« on: June 10, 2021, 01:42:10 PM »
I read tafsirs on 33:50 and the part where the Verse says "this is only for you (Prophet) and not the other believers" refers only to "any women who offer themselves to you" and not the cousins mentioned in the before part of the verse. So basically what you are saying here, anyone can marry their cousins, not just the Prophet.
  The Noble Verse was to the Prophet, but the Law was a general one for all Muslim men on whom they can marry from their relatives and others.

You are correct, and these Verses do not bother me anymore because you have answered my questions.

Jazakallah Khayran also.

Quran Morality and Moral Code, Laws & QA / Re: Peace or not
« on: June 05, 2021, 01:15:25 PM »
then how come in 8: 61 it says that if they incline to peace you should also incline to it. It says peace, not surrender.

Muslims do not wage or start any war. They fight in self-defense AFTER the kafirs wage war. About why the Muslims can not call for peace in a war, the conflict and fitnah will not be fully gone if Muslims don't keep fighting the kafirs until they surrender. They will come back again. About "if they incline to peace, thou incline to peace" that is IF the kafirs want peace FIRST then Muslims should listen to them and end the war.

In other words, Muslims do not ask for peace FIRST when they are fighting a self-defense war but if the enemies ask for peace FIRST, then Muslims must listen. If the kafirs come back to fight though after requesting peace, the cycle is repeated (Muslims do not ask for peace first but if the kafirs do, then you also.)

« on: June 04, 2021, 10:04:32 AM »
You're arguing too much over this point and it is becoming annoying.  I don't know the details of how the Noble Verse was executed during the Prophet's days, and I don't really care.  The Noble Verse above is crystal clear:  Any and all free women are forbidden upon the Prophet in marriage.  He could only interact with any slave woman he may have owned at the time.  And again and again, Allah Almighty Commanded all Muslims to end all forms of slavery in the Muslims' lands.  Let's move on to the next "abrogation" lie.

The gospel of porn, i.e., "bible" can't even decide on whether brothers can do their little sister or not.  It literally praises them for lusting over her and her "little" breasts, as they called her breasts:

Yet, this pornography is upheld while being part of the pile of dung, i.e., bible, as the Holy Word of GOD.

You mean these specific Verses you don't want to talk about or you want to stop this "abrogation lies" topic completely?

Let's move on to the next "abrogation" lie.

Do you mean move on to supposed other verses talking about "abrogation" or what you said afterwards about the "Bible can't even make up its mind"? Because if you meant the former then I dont have any Verses yet under question. They will come later in time.

جزاك الله خيرا

« on: June 03, 2021, 09:17:07 PM »

« on: June 03, 2021, 06:23:28 PM »
Yes I realized that it was in the singular but I thought that in modern day this could also apply to the reader of the Quran
who has 4 wives since the Quran talks to everyone. But I guess it only refers to the Prophet.

An abrogation is when a general Law is permanently nullified by another. This does not exist in the Glorious Quran.  Christianity's prohibition of polygamy, for example, would qualify as an abrogation in their lala world of buffoonery, even though Jesus never forbade it:

Because their religion is a religion of lies, it is filled with lies on GOD Almighty, and it has turned sinful into lawful and lawful into sinful.

If the Prophet was in a position where any further marriage became forbidden for him because he had more than four wives at the time Allah Almighty set that limit, then this is not an abrogation.  The Prophet's situation here is not a general Law for all Muslims and for all times and places.  The Law about a woman offering herself to the Prophet can still be applied for slave women.  Believing slaves owned by Muslims did exist back then.  She could still be his female harem.  But then again, one of Islam's Grand Goals is to end all slavery:

[090:012] And what will make you comprehend what the uphill road is?
[090:013] (It is) the setting free of a slave,

So one of the monumental tasks upon the Muslims is to end all forms of slavery.  Yet, the Glorious Quran also allows enslaving, buying slaves, selling slaves, having harems (female slaves).  So is this a contradiction?  No.  Is this an abrogation (90:12-13 abrogating all other verses or vise versa)?  No.  All Noble Verses concerning slaves and slavery still stand TILL THIS DAY!  All 6236 Noble Verses that make up the entire Glorious Quran still stand today and will always stand till the Day of Judgment.  We have no abrogation here.  The Muslim State and Court and people must be mindful that Allah Almighty has set high and monumental goals in the Glorious Quran.  In the interim of things, however, the slavery Noble Verses could be activated and applied due to battles that may occur or deals and/or transactions.  But the ultimate goal must be to end all forms of slavery in all Muslim lands.

As to why the Noble Verses that are limited to the Prophet exist in the Glorious Quran, this belongs to Allah Almighty.  No one can really answer this one.  I can however remind you that the Glorious Quran's Text and number of verses is STUNNINGLY miraculous:

Take care,
Osama Abdallah
So you're saying that the Verse that prohibits marrying women "after this" can apply to people who have 4 wives in modern day am I right? And why Allah talked to only the prophet in the quran is unknown?

Please confirm or fix what I'm saying.

No, it was only limited to the Prophet.  The Noble Verse is speaking in singular and directly to him:  LAKA (to you) is singular and is directly speaking to a single person and ignores everyone else around; to thee, and it is masculine.  If you direct LAKA to someone in a group, it would single him out.  The feminine form of LAKA is LAKI.  LAKUMA is a dual plural (dual plural even for two women).  LAKUM is a plural of three or more of either mixed gender or all men.  LAKUN is for three or more women.

I believe the prohibition for the Prophet from marrying more women and from divorcing and marrying women as a replacement is to prevent the Prophet from abusing marriage and divorce.  If the Prophet himself was practicing Muta, then this would've ended it dead in its track right there for him.  The sacredness of marriage is big in Islam, and the Covenant of Marriage in Islam is a SOLEMN ONE.  Mithaqan Ghaleetha ميثاقا غليظا (solemn covenant) was given three times in the Glorious Quran:

1-  To the solemn covenant between Allah Almighty and the Jews on the sacredness of the Sabbath.

2-  To the solemn covenant between Allah Almighty and the Prophets.

3-  To the solemn covenant between the husband and wife.

Please visit:

Take care,
Osama Abdallah

So this law (33:50) that was replaced by another (33:52) was ONLY for the Prophet. And based on what you said, the law for the Prophet ONLY if replaced by another law is not abrogation since it is not a general law to Muslims for all times and places. Am I correct?

I think maybe 33:50 was revealed to the Prophet to provide for needy and poor women who lost their husbands by marrying them. And later, maybe 33:52 was revealed to, like you said, not make the Prophet abuse marriage. So first Allah revealed 33:50 to provide for needy women and then later after a while, Allah (always) knew that marriage to too many women would likely make the Prophet neglect the Covenant of Marriage. Am I wrong?

Pages: [1] 2 3 4 5 ... 9

What's new | A-Z | Discuss & Blog | Youtube