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Topics - Qualities of Allah

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« on: June 17, 2021, 09:02:17 PM »
Assalamu Alaykum,
The Quran says Noah lived for 950 years in Verse 29:14,
[29:014]"Indeed, We sent Noah to his people, and he remained among them for a thousand years, less fifty. Then the Flood overtook them, while they persisted in wrongdoing."

Some Muslims argue that living for 950 years makes no sense and that is not what Allah meant. They say that Allah is not concerned with ages of people so Allah did not mention the age of Noah and instead Allah said "1000 less fifty" (not 950 directly). They argue that the word used for "years" in "1000 years" is سَنَةٍ, which is associated with bad years and for "minus 50 years" the word used was عَامًا, which is associated with good years. They prove this claim by saying that the use of the word عام is found in Quran 12:49, which reads: "'Then a year (عَامٌ) will come after that when people will receive showers, and in which they will press [grapes].'"

As you can see, the use of عام here denotes a good year where people will receive rains and make wine. And for the word سَنَة, they say that it is found in Quran 5:26: "He said: 'It will proscribed on them for forty years (سَنَةً). They will wander around the earth, so do not worry about such perverse people.'"

Here, the Holy Land is forbidden upon the Jews for 40 years and the word used was سَنَةً. So, those Muslims say that سنة refers to bad years and عام refers to good years. So, Muslims argue that for Noah's case, 1000 سنة is metaphorical and means that it means Noah experienced a lot of bad, oppressed years except only 50 عام, or only a few years of spiritual progress. They say that 1000 years minus 50 years does not mean Muslims just do easy math (1000-50=950) since Allah could have said 950 years directly.

So basically their argument is that 1000 and 50 are metaphorical numbers and not literal, saying that 1000 merely means a lot (of bad years) and 50 means a little (good years). Then they use Verse 29:43 to justify that the Quran was being metaphorical, "These are parables We make up for mankind, though only the learned will use their [powers of] reason."

"These are parables", they say means that Noah's age and many other stories in the Quran are metaphorical and this Verse is especially referring to Noah's age because both verses (the one about Noah's age and the other that says "these are parables") are in the same Surah (Surah Ankabut). Then, they also use Verse 48:23 to prove that lifespans are always the same and they are not getting shorter or longer. The Verse reads: "[This is] the established way of Allah which has occurred before. And never will you find in the way of Allah any change."

So they say Allah's way can not change, as a result lifespans cannot change either because they are part of Allah's way.

Finally, they go back to Verse 29:14 itself, "Indeed, We sent Noah to his people, and he remained among them for a thousand years, less fifty. Then the Flood overtook them, while they persisted in wrongdoing."

They say that it says he "remained" among his people and that it never says "he lived for". So they say that the Quran isn't talking about how long he lived at all.

Ok so here are the summaries of the points they made to prove that Noah did not live 950 years but a normal lifespan:

  • First, living 950 years makes no sense scientifically as scientists say that the lifespan is increasing, not decreasing.
  • Second, Allah is not concerned with the ages of people since it has nothing to do with guiding people.
  • Third, Allah never directly said 950 years but instead said 1000 سنة minus 50 عام. And they "proved" that عام means good years and سنة means bad years using Quran 12:49 and 5:26. They say that 1000 and 50 are metaphorical numbers and just mean that Noah achieved many years of oppression and only a few years of spiritual progress.
  • Fourth, the same chapter where Noah is said to live 950 years says in Verse 43 that God gives parables to mankind, concluding that God "confirms" Noah's age was a parable and not literal.
  • Fifth, Verse 48:23 is used to say that God does not change his way. Thus, "proving" that lifespans were never different and longer before and were always the same as they are part of God's way.
  • Sixth, Verse 29:14 itself says that Noah REMAINED WITH HIS PEOPLE, and not lived, for 1000 minus 50 years, thus "proving" that the Quran never said Noah lived for 950 years.
  • Finally, they say that after doing the math, 1000 سنة minus 50 عام, which unit should the answer be in, سنة or عام? Thus, they say that just doing simple math here doesn't make sense, "falsyfing" the claim that Noah lived for 950 years. (I find this reasoning to be poor because سنة and عام mean the same thing and are synonyms, so the answer would be in سنة or عام.

So these are their points, and is it possible for you to refute all the points they made? Please refute their claim point by point.

Thank you,
Qualities of Allah

Learn Arabic / Verb Conjugation Part I: Simple Sound Verbs (Form I)
« on: June 14, 2021, 02:33:56 PM »
السلام عليكم ورحمة الله وبركاته
Last topic we said verbs are marked with 7 different categories. Now I will tell you which categories we will discuss these days. We will discuss tenses, persons, numbers, and genders for sure now and in the near days inshallah. We may discuss voices in the near days. We may or may not discuss moods in the near future (but we will definitely discuss the imperative mood).  We will most likely not discuss forms EVER (that's because I find them very complicated and hard, lol). (*NOTE: Just because I won't discuss some things doesn't mean that you can't research it yourself, if you really want to know.*)

We will talk about form I verbs, because they are the normal verbs (for me, lol). But forms are out of the picture so I will pretend as if they don't even exist. First of all, in verb conjugation, verbs are divided into 2 categories, sound and weak, which in turn are divided into three categories each. Sound verbs are divided into simple sound verbs, hamzated verbs, and doubled root verbs. Weak verbs are divided into hollow, defective, and assimilated verbs. In this topic, we will discuss simple sound verbs only and conjugate them into all tenses, persons, and numbers.

Simple sound verbs are those verbs that have 3 letters without any "weak" letters, which are ا،و،ي. They are verbs like كَتَبَ (to write) and فَتَحَ (to open).

First we will conjugate a verb in the past tense. We will choose the verb كَتَبَ (to write). كَتَبَ is actually the singular past tense third person masculine form of the verb and literally means "he wrote" instead of "to write." In the Arabic dictionary, verbs are represented by the singular past tense third person masculine form.  So in the past tense, letters are added to the END of the verb (suffix), when conjugating. We do not look at the beginning of the verb AT ALL in past tense.

Let us start conjugating:

Third person singular

كَتَبَ: He wrote
كَتَبَتْ: She wrote

Third person dual

كَتَبَا: They (m.) wrote
كَتَبَتَا: They (f.) wrote

Third person plural

كَتَبُوا: They (m.) wrote
كَتَبْنَ: They (f.) wrote

Second person singular

كَتَبْتَ: You (m.) wrote
كَتَبْتِ: You (f.) wrote

Second person dual

كَتَبْتُمَا: You (m. or f.) wrote

Second person plural

كَتَبْتُمْ: You (m.) wrote
كَتَبْتُنَّ: You (f.) wrote

First person singular

كَتَبْتُ: I wrote

First person dual and plural

كَتَبْنَا: We wrote

So now we are done with the past tense. We will move on to the present tense. In the present tense, you add a letter to the BEGINNING of the verb (prefix) and sometimes you also add letters to the end of the verb (suffix). Lets conjugate:

Third person singular

يَكْتُبُ: He writes
تَكْتُبُ: She writes

Third person dual

يَكْتُبَانِ: They (m.) write
تَكْتُبَانِ: They (f.) write

Third person plural

يَكْتُبُوْنَ: They (m.) write
يَكْتُبْنَ: They (f.) write

Second person singular

تَكْتُبُ: You (m.) write
تَكْتُبِيْنَ: You (f.) write

Second person dual

تَكْتُبَانِ: You (m. or f.) write

Second person plural

تَكْتُبُوْنَ: You (m.) write
تَكْتُبْنَ: You (f.) write

First person singular

اَكْتُبُ: I write

First person dual and plural

نَكْتُبُ: We write

Now we are done with the present tense. We will move on to future tense. The future tense is easy, just take the appropriate present tense verb and add a سَ or the word سَوْفَ before it. Let us start:

Third person singular

 سَيَكْتُبُ : He will write
 سَتَكْتُبُ :She will write

Third person dual

سَيَكْتُبَانِ: They (m.) will write
سَتَكْتُبَانِ: They (f.) will write

Third person plural

سَيَكْتُبُوْنَ: They (m.) will write
سَيَكْتُبْنَ: They (f.) will write

Second person singular

سَتَكْتُبُ: You (m.) will write
سَتَكْتُبِيْنَ: You (f.) will write

Second person dual

سَتَكْتُبَانِ: You (m. or f.) will write

Second person plural

سَتَكْتُبُوْنَ: You (m.) will write
سَتَكْتُبْنَ: You (f.) will write

First person singular

سَاَكْتُبُ: I will write

First person dual and plural

سَنَكْتُبُ: We will write

Now we are done with all tenses.

Let me give you a trick to remember the second person of the past tense. Just use the word اَنْتَ (you m.) as the model.

  • اَنْتَ كَتَبْتَ (you [m.] write)
  • اَنْتِ كَتَبْتِ (you [f.] write)
  • اَنْتُمَا كَتَبْتُمَا (you [m. or f. dual] write)
  • اَنْتُمْ كَتَبْتُمْ (you [m. plural] write)
  • اَنْتُنَّ كَتَبْتُنَّ (you [f. plural] write)

Now I shall tell you a trick for the present tense. For the present tense you only use the letters ا،ن،ي،ت as prefixes. ا is only for first person singular (I), ن is only for first person plural (We), ت is for all of second person, and ي is for all of third person (except for the feminine singular and dual, which uses ت instead of ي).

So I shall end this topic now.


Learn Arabic / Verbs: 7 categories
« on: June 12, 2021, 04:11:23 PM »
السلام عليكم ورحمة الله وبركاته

We have covered family relationships, which are nouns. Now we will do some verbs.

First of all verbs in Arabic are marked with 7 different categories,  which are tenses, voices, forms, numbers, genders, persons, and moods (non-past only). There are:

  • 3 tenses (past, present, future)
  • 2 voices (active, passive)
  • 19 forms (Form I, Form II,...Form XIX)
  • 3 numbers (singular, dual, plural)
  • 3 persons (1st person, 2nd person, 3rd person)
  • 6 moods for non-past only (indicative, jussive, subjunctive, imperative, short energetic, long energetic)
  • 2 genders (masculine, feminine)

« on: May 26, 2021, 10:09:13 PM »
Assalamu Alaykum,
I just want to ask why does the Quran refer to future and present events as past tense? There are many examples, like Surah 56:1 is one of them: "When the Occurance occurs," إِذَا وَقَعَتِ الْوَاقِعَةُ

The word used here is وَقَعَتْ, which is actually a past tense verb which means "occured" so the literal meaning would be "When the Occurance occured," instead of "occurs". So why does the Quran talk about the Day of Judgment in the past tense instead of the future tense?

Also, Surah 4:148 says, "Allah does not like negative thoughts to be voiced—except by those who have been wronged. Allah is All-Hearing, All-Knowing."

لَا يُحِبُّ اللهُ الْجَهْرَ بِالسُّوْءِ مِنَ الْقَوْلِ إِلَّا مَنْ ظُلِمَ وَكَانَ اللهُ سَمِيْعًا عَلِيْمًا

The word used for "is" in "Allah is" is كَانَ, which is actually a past tense verb (can it be used in the present tense?)"was". So the literal meaning of وَكَانَ الله is "Allah was," instead of "Allah is". But Allah is always hearing and knowing. Instead of كَانَ, the word could have been يَكُونُ (no?), which is the present tense "is". So why does Allah use past tense verbs to describe  things that are in the present or future?

« on: May 14, 2021, 05:17:32 PM »
Assalamu Alaykum everyone,
I was reading the Quran and when I reached quran 2:240 which says, "Those of you who die leaving widows should bequeath for them a year’s maintenance without forcing them out. But if they choose to leave, you are not accountable for what they reasonably decide for themselves. And Allah is Almighty, All-Wise," guess what happened. The footnote mentioned our enemy, abrogation, was supposed to eat this verse but forgot because this ruling was replaced by 2:234. 2:234 says, "As for those of you who die and leave widows behind, let them observe a waiting period of four months and ten days. When they have reached the end of this period, then you are not accountable for what they decide for themselves in a reasonable manner. And Allah is All-Aware of what you do."

Two different rulings. One says if a husband dies then the will is that wives will be provided for a year. The other one says to observe a waiting period of 4 months and ten days and then do whatever they want. Also for the 2:240 verse, the wife can do whatever she wants whenever but the 2:234 verse says to wait for 4 months and ten. And know most scholars believe that 2:234 abrogated 2:240. But there is supposed to be no abrogations! That is 1 part of this question.

Part 2 Surah A'ala Verses 6-7 say, "We will have you recite ˹the Quran, O  Prophet,˺ so you will not forget ˹any of it˺, unless Allah wills otherwise. He surely knows what is open and what is hidden."Why did it say "unless Allah wills otherwise?" The footnote is saying that this means God will make the Prophet forget abrogated rulings. But there should be no abrogations!

Part 3 This is about 4:15-16, which you claim refer to lesbians and gays. "˹As for˺ those of your women who commit illegal intercourse—call four witnesses from among yourselves. If they testify, confine the offenders to their homes until they die or Allah ordains a ˹different˺ way for them. And the two among you men who commit this sin—discipline them. If they repent and mend their ways, relieve them. Surely Allah is ever Accepting of Repentance, Most Merciful."

"Or Allah ordains a different way for them," this prompted scholars to say that this verse is about man-woman adultery and that this verse was going to be abrogated because Allah will ordain a different way. They believed this verse was abrogated by 24:2, which talks about flogging 100 times the adulters. But there is supposed to be no abrogation, so can you explain why it says "Or Allah ordains a different way for them" and why this verse is actually referring to homosexuals and not man-woman adultery?

Please, please address and answer each part

Jazakumullah Khayran

« on: April 20, 2021, 11:07:05 AM »
Assalamu Alaykum,

I have a question about cases of fighting. In the Quran, fighting is only for "those who fight you." (Quran 2:190)

[2:190]"Fight in the cause of Allah ˹only˺ against those who wage war against you, but do not exceed the limits. Allah does not like transgressors.

[2:191]Kill them wherever you come upon them and drive them out of the places from which they have driven you out. For persecution is far worse than killing. And do not fight them at the Sacred Mosque unless they attack you there. If they do so, then fight them—that is the reward of the disbelievers."

The problem is that what if in one place Muslims are being oppressed not by physical harm but other ways, like forcing them to eat pork, taking the Quran away from them, etc.? Like basically, the kuffar are not fighting them but are oppressing them in other ways. Now lets also say that the Muslims in that place cannot immigrate to a new land for financial or other reasons. Is it permissible to fight these kuffar until they stop oppression, because these kuffar did not fight them physically (so this would make Muslims start the physical fighting first)? Because as I posted the verse of the Quran that only says to "fight those who fight you," this verse makes it sound like Muslims cannot fight those who did not physically fight them first. So does this mean Muslims must stay passive if the kuffar only oppress Muslims in other ways besides physical fighting?

« on: April 06, 2021, 08:17:47 AM »
What does 4:148 mean, "Allah does not like negative thoughts to be voiced—except by those who have been wronged. Allah is All-Hearing, All-Knowing."

What does this verse mean by "except those who have been wronged?" I read a tafsir and I still did not get it. It said something like "Allah does not like backbiting except when someone oppressed seeks counseling." For some reason, I still do not get it. What does that mean? Like when someone gets bullied and goes to a therapist they can say negative things about the bully?

« on: April 05, 2021, 09:22:05 AM »
I have been thinking this for a quite long time. I have heard that Ummi does not mean "illiterate" but "one who has no knowledge of the Book (Gentile)." On top of that, I have come across Verses like 3:20 and 62:2. Quran 3:20 says:

"So if they argue with you ˹O Prophet˺, say, 'I have submitted myself to Allah, and so have my followers.' And ask those who were given the Scripture and the illiterate ˹people˺ 'Have you submitted yourselves ˹to Allah˺?' If they submit, they will be ˹rightly˺ guided. But if they turn away, then your duty is only to deliver ˹the message˺. And Allah is All-Seeing of ˹His˺ servants."

This verse mentioned the People of the Book and "the illiterate" people. Does this mean that all the pagans of Arabia were illiterate? And if all of them were not, this Verse makes it sound like the Prophet will only guide the People of the Book and the illiterates (only) from among the pagans of Arabia (the literate of the pagans of Arabia will be left out from guidance).
Also, Gentiles are the opposite of the People of the Book so the Quran most likely wants Ummi to mean Gentile. Furthermore, Quran 62:2 says:

"He is the One Who raised for the illiterate ˹people˺ a messenger from among themselves—reciting to them His revelations, purifying them, and teaching them the Book and wisdom, for indeed they had previously been clearly astray—"

Again, Prophet Muhammad was raised with people that are literally illiterate? This Verse again makes it sound like all pagans of Arabia were illiterate. The "illiterate" part is rather metaphorical I think. It does not really mean the pagans of Arabia were illiterate. This means that they were illiterate in the sense that they had no Divine Revelation, which basically would mean a Gentile.

Also, this raises another question. Does that mean the Prophet was also not illiterate? This means that the Prophet was just a Gentile before Revelation? Also the first Verse of Surah Alaq tells everyone to read. If the Prophet was preaching Surah Alaq and being illiterate at the same time, would not that be hypocritical? Probably the Prophet was illiterate then became literate because of the Revelation or the Prophet was always literate?

« on: April 02, 2021, 09:33:10 PM »
Assalamu Alaykum,
In Quran 2:98, it says:

من كان عدوا لله وملائكته ورسله وجبريل وميكال فان الله عدو للكافرين
The word for Michael is ميكال here. However Michael is sometimes spelled ميكائيل instead of ميكال. Like for example, in one dua it says:

اللهم رب جبرائيل، وميكائيل، وإسرافيل، فاطر السماوات والأرض، عالم الغيب والشهادة، أنت تحكم بين عبادك فيما كانوا فيه يختلفون، اهدني لما اختلف فيه من الحق بإذنك، إنك تهدي من تشاء إلى صراط مستقيم

In this dua, Michael is spelled ميكائيل instead of ميكال.  Also, every article I saw writes ميكائيل. The only place that Michael is spelled ميكال is in the Quran. Now why is that?

Assalamu Alaykum Brothers,
In Suratul Maidah Verse 5 it says:

"Today all good, pure foods have been made lawful for you. Similarly, the food of the People of the Book is permissible for you(وطعام الذين اوتوا الكتاب حل لكم)and yours is permissible for them. And ˹permissible for you in marriage˺ are chaste believing women as well as chaste women of those given the Scripture before you—as long as you pay them their dowries in wedlock, neither fornicating nor taking them as mistresses. And whoever rejects the faith, all their good deeds will be void ˹in this life˺ and in the Hereafter they will be among the losers."

This verse says that meat sacrificed by the Jews or Christians (people of the book) is Halal for us Muslims. I heard we could eat Kosher food but we can't eat the Christians' food. That's why we have a rule for Halal and Haram meat. The problem is if we could eat the food of the Christians, that means we could eat the McDonald's Big Mac and meat burgers! That doesn't make sense though because Muslims believe that McDonald's and Burger King and whatever are Haram because they are not sacrificed in the ritual Muslim way! So what does this verse actually mean?

« on: March 24, 2021, 07:09:15 PM »
السلام عليكم ورحمة الله وبركاته
Is shaytaan in the Quran referring to one satan, or a group of Satan's from humans and jinn? Because like Surah 35 (Fatir):6 says:

"Surely Satan is an enemy to you, so take him as an enemy. He only invites his followers to become inmates of the Blaze."

The word شيطان here is singular.

But in Surah Mulk Verse 5, it says: "And indeed, We adorned the lowest heaven with ˹stars like˺ lamps, and made them ˹as missiles˺ for stoning ˹eavesdropping˺ devils, for whom We have also prepared the torment of the Blaze."

The word for "devils" here is شياطين, the plural of شيطان.

Also, Surah Al-An'aam says in Verse 112, "And so We have made for every prophet enemies—devilish humans and jinn—whispering to one another with elegant words of deception. Had it been your Lord’s Will, they would not have done such a thing. So leave them and their deceit,"

The words "devilish human beings and jinns" (شياطين الإنس والجن) literally means Satans from humans and djinns.

So my question is, doesn't this all seem to imply that there are many Satans, and that bad manipulating humans are also Satan? Doesn't this mean that the places in the Quran (such as Surah Fatir which I quoted) that use the singular form of Satan are actually not referring to one being, but rather to all Satans (from humans and djinns) as a unity?

Assalamu Alaykum,
Brother, why did Abu Bakr conquer Iran? Didnt he force his religion on them? Also why is the Prophet's letter to Oman threatening?

"“In the name of Allah, the Beneficent, the Merciful. From Mohammed, the messenger of Allah, to Jaifar and Abd, sons of Al Julanda. Peace is upon him who follows the guidance. I am calling both of you, in the name of Islam. You will be safe if you submit to Islam.

I am the Messenger of Allah to all people warn all living that Islam will prevail. I hope you will accept Islam, but if you do not, then you will lose your country, and my horsemen will invade your territory and my prophecy will dominate your country”."

« on: March 21, 2021, 02:47:25 PM »
Salamun Alaykum Brother Osama,
I looked at your update today and you have written that Selah in the Book of Habakkuk means the city of Saleh. But Selah does not mean that. Selah is mentioned all over the Psalms and Book of Habakkuk. It is commonly thought to mean a musical direction.

Dictionary entry: " (in the Bible) occurring frequently at the end of a verse in Psalms and Habakkuk, probably as a musical direction."

An example of selah that is not used in Habakkuk 3:3 is Psalms 46:4, "Though the waters thereof roar and foam, though the mountains shake at the swelling thereof. Selah"

This shows that selah is not referring to the city of Saleh but is most likely just a musical direction.

Also you said that Sela in Isaiah 42 refers to the city of Saleh.
Instead of it meaning the city of Saleh, I think it is referring to Mount Sela in Madina. Maybe you should investigate a little bit more. 

السلام عليكم ورحمة الله وبركاته

I'm not sure if you saw this scientific miracle but it can be a scientific miracle. Here it is:

Yusuf Ali:

[024:040]  Or (the Unbelievers' state) is like the depths of darkness in a vast deep ocean, overwhelmed with billow topped by billow, topped by (dark) clouds: depths of darkness, one above another: if a man stretches out his hands, he can hardly see it! for any to whom God giveth not light, there is no light!

Arabic text:
 24:40 او كظلمات في بحر لجي يغشاه موج من فوقه موج من فوقه سحاب ظلمات بعضها فوق بعض اذا اخرج يده لم يكد يراها ومن لم يجعل الله له نورا فماله من نور

"...billow (wave) topped by billow (wave)..." can probably refer to an internal wave topped by a surface wave (the usual wave). Nobody knew back then about internal waves, which can mean that this is a scientific miracle.

Wikipedia on internal waves:

Also, this can just refer to the obvious surface waves following each other. But, maybe the Verse can be referring to both, who knows.

(By the way, when I read this Verse in the Quran at first, I thought that there was a mistake in my Quran because it repeated موج من فوقه twice consecutively so I looked in other Qurans and saw they were all the same. Turns out that this could be a scientific miracle now.)

Learn Arabic / Plurals
« on: March 12, 2021, 08:18:02 PM »
السلام عليكم ورحمة الله وبركاته

So now, we covered family relationships. Now we will go on to the plurals of these members. Also formulas about the plural forms of most words will be taught.

So mother was اُمٌّ in Arabic. The plural form of mother (mothers) is اُمَّهَاتٌ.

Fathers in Arabic is اٰبَاءٌ.

Brothers: اِخْوَةٌ

Sisters: اَخَوَاتٌ

Paternal Uncles: اَعْمَامٌ

Paternal Aunts: عَمَّاتٌ

Maternal Uncles: اَخْوَالٌ

Maternal Aunts: خَالَاتٌ

Sons: اَبْنَاءٌ

Daughters: بَنَاتٌ

Brother's sons (nephews): اَبْنَاءُ الْاَخِ

Brother's daughters (nieces): بَنَاتُ الْاَخِ

Sister's sons (nephews): اَبْنَاءُ الْاُخْتِ

Sister's daughters (nieces): بَنَاتُ الْاُخْتِ

Paternal cousin brothers (father's brother's sons): اَبْنَاءُ الْعَمِّ

Paternal cousin sisters (father's brother's daughters): بَنَاتُ الْعَمِّ

Paternal cousin brothers (father's sister's sons): اَبْنَاءُ الْعَمَّةِ

Paternal cousin sisters (father's sister's daughters): بَنَاتُ الْعَمَّةِ

Maternal cousin brothers (mother's brother's sons): اَبْنَاءُ الْخَالِ

Maternal cousin sisters (mother's brother's daughters): بَنَاتُ الْخَالِ

Maternal cousin brothers (mother's sister's sons): اَبْنَاءُ الْخَالَةِ

Maternal cousin sisters (mother's sister's daughters): بَنَاتُ الْخَالَةِ

Grandfathers: اَجْدَادٌ

Grandmothers: جَدَّاتٌ

Grandsons: اَحْفَادٌ

Granddaughters: حَفِيْدَاتٌ

Husbands: اَزْوَاجٌ

Wives: زَوْجَاتٌ

Sons- or brothers-in-law: اَصْهَارٌ

Daughters- or sisters-in-law: كَنَائِنُ

Mothers-in-law: حَمَوَاتٌ

Fathers-in-law: اَحْمَاءٌ

Full-blood brothers: اَشِقَّاءُ

Full-blood sisters: شَقِيْقَاتٌ

Other Ways to Say Certain Words

Fathers: وَالِدَانِ

Mothers: وَالِدَاتٌ

Sons: اَوْلَادٌ

Daughters: بَنَاتٌ

Husbands: بُعُوْلٌ

Wives: عَقِيْلَاتٌ

So now, we went over all the family relationships mentioned here and made them plural. Now some rules about plurals will be discussed.

So for male members of the family, the rule of the plural form for them most of the time is that an alif should be added before the singular word. For example خَالٌ, which means maternal uncle, its plural form will be اَخْوَالٌ as listed earlier. Notice how an alif got added in اَخْوَالٌ. That's what I mean. Also, some masculine words in some cases may have another plural. For example, اِبْنٌ, which means son, can be بَنُوْنٌ instead of اَبْنَاءٌ. This type of plural has a waaw and noon added to the later part of the word. However, this is only in the nominative case. In the accusative and genitive cases, a yaa instead of a waaw is added with the noon, so it would be بنين instead of بنون. These cases may be mentioned in this board one day, if Allah wills.

As for feminine plurals, most of the time an alif (as a madd letter) and taa is added at the end of the word. For example, how خَالَةٌ, which means maternal aunt, turns into خَالَاتٌ in the plural. Notice how the alif and taa are added.

Now this is enough for today.

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