Author Topic: WHO REALITY HERDED THE VERSES FROM SATAN?  (Read 5081 times)

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Offline shabeer_hassan

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« on: January 23, 2013, 02:04:04 AM »
Many Christian critics have alleged that the revelation received
by Muhammad (e) were, in fact, from the Satan himself. It has been
the endeavour of the Christian writers like C.D. Fander, Claire Tisdal,
Joshmach Dowell, John Gilchrist and G. Nehless to portray the
revelations received by Muhammad (e) as being the insinuations of
the Devil. They advocate the idea that it had been the attempt of the
Devil to confine man within the pitfalls of sin by way of denying the
cruicifixion of Jesus Christ and the atonement of sin through it, that
stands behind the verses of the Qur'an. Can the Devil infest the human
body? Can a person be afflicted with disease owing to his possession
by the Devil? Will a person possessed by the Devil have the experience
of revelation? Such discussions are irrelevant here. By the dictum of
the Bible, then, let us consider the disorders that manifest themselves
in the person possessed by the Devil :
1. Screaming aloud owing to the affliction of the brain (Mark 1:24,
Luke 9:39, John 10:20)
2. Suicidal tendency (Mathew 9,18:17, 15:32, Mark 5:13, Luke 8:33)
3. Tendency to walk naked (Luke 8:2, 8:35)
4. To be pushed aside by the Devil (Mathew 17:15, Mark 1:26, 9:18,
9:20, 9:26)
5. Dumbness (Mark 9:25, 9:32, 12:22, Luke 11:14)
6. Deafness (Mark 9:25)
7. Blindness (Mathew 12:22)
8. To see that which others do not and to know that which others
don’t (Mark 1:24, Luke 4:3, Mathew 8:29)
None of the symptoms of the one possessed by the Devil, which
are described in the Bible, is seen in the person of Muhammad (e).
One of the evidences cited by those who allege that Muhammad (pbuh)
was possessed by the Devil has been his own statement that the divine
revelation sometimes came to him in the form of the ringing of a bell
and that this form of revelation was the hardest for him. Another
evidence cited has been the saying of Aysha (r), the wife of the Prophet,
that she saw beads of perspiration on the forehead of the Prophet
when the revelation came upon him on a very cold day. Here, there is
an important question that is to be considered. Does the Bible say, in
any place, that the one possessed by the Devil feels the ringing of a
bell in his ears or that his forehead is dampened with the wetness of
perspiration even in extreme cold? If it does not, then what, indeed, is
the basis on which the followers of the Bible allege satanic possession
against the Prophet?
Those who say that the divine message received by the Prophet
was the production of a Devilish possession, are, in fact, actually
forced to say that their own holy men are themselves possessed by
the Devil.
‘St. Paul’ had been the one who had actively laboured to destroy
Jesus as well as the ideals that he propagated (Acts of the Apostles
9:1, 26:10, 8:1) as long as he remained on the earth, after which it was
that he came forward with the claim that Christ had appeared to him
in a vision. Observe the description in the Bible of the way in which he
had received this vision of Christ: “As he neared Damascus on his
journey, suddenly a light from heaven flashed around him. He
fell to the ground and heard a voice say to him, ‘Saul, Saul, why
do you persecute me?’
‘Who are you, Lord ?’ Saul asked. ‘I am Jesus, whom you
are persecuting.’ He replied. ‘Now get up and go into the city,
and you will be told what you must do.’
The men travelling with Saul stood there speechless, they
heard the sound but did not see anyone. Saul got up from the
ground, but when he opened his eyes he could see nothing. So
they led him by the hand into Damascus. For three days he was
blind, and did not eat or drink anything.” (Acts of the Apostles
We have seen that the Bible indicates the falling down to the
ground, seeing that which others do not see and hearing that which
others do not hear as being the symptoms of a devilish possession. In
the incident wherein Paul claimed that he saw Christ, he had
experienced all these symptoms too. But will the Christian world
accept it if it was now claimed that Paul himself had been possessed
of the Devil? The Christian critics will never be able to produce even
a single shred of evidence from the Bible to conclusively assert that
Muhammad (e) was possesed by the Devil. On the other hand,
however, it can be shown, using the Bible, that Paul, the real founder
of the present-day Christian faith, had been subjected to the
insinuations of the Satan. Then who is it, now, who was actually
possessed of by the Devil ?
Now, examine the very corner-stone of the Christian allegation
that the Qur'an had come to be written because of the Satanic influences
that moved Muhammad (e). After all, it has been only because of the
Qur'anic denunciation of the concept of salvation through the
crucifixion of Jesus Christ that the Qur'an has been alleged to be a
satanic creation. What, then, is the reality? Both Christians and
Muslims believe that Jesus was of a pure and unblemished character.
Both groups are agreed upon the fact that he had been appointed by
God Almighty Himself. Further still, both affirm that he was not
possessed by the Devil. If such is the case, then why should we not
compare the teachings of Jesus Christ with those of Paul and
Muhammad (e) in order to analyze as to who it was - Paul or
Muhammad (e) - who was afflicted by the insinuations of the Satan.
For any person in receipt of a revelation from the Devil must, of a
necessity, be an enemy of Jesus; going by the consideration that the
antagonist of a messenger from God will naturally be the antagonist of the message that he conveys.

Offline shabeer_hassan

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« Reply #1 on: January 23, 2013, 02:21:09 AM »
Jesus said: “Do not think that I have come to abolish the
Law or the prophets” (Mathew 5:17)
The Qur'an says, “It was We who revealed the Torah (to
Moses): therein was guidance and light.” (5:44)
“And remember, Jesus, the son of Mary, said: ‘O Children
of Israel! I am the messenger of Allah (Sent) to you, confirming
the Taurat (which came) before me, and giving Glad Tidings of
messenger to come after me, whose name shall be Ahmad.’” (61:6)
Paul had written, “Christ redeemed us from the curse of the
Law.” (Galatians 3:13)
“By abolishing in his flesh the law with its commandments
and regulations.” (Ephesians 2:15)
Jesus said that he came not to destroy the law; the Qur'an, too,
says the same. As for Paul, he contends that Jesus had come to save
the world from the law. Who indeed, is the one who recieved the
revelation of Satan ?
Jesus Christ had never taught that he was God. (Mark 12:29,
Mathew 4:10). The Qur'an, too, reiterates this beyond the shadow of
a doubt. (3:51). But Paul had stated thus, “Who, being in very nature
God, did not consider equality with, God something to be grasped.”
(Philippians 2:6) and “He is the image of the invisible God, the
first born over all creation.” (Colossians 1:15). Jesus had never
received any revelation that stated that he himself was God. Even if
he did receive such a revelation, he would certainly have made it
known. But Paul seems to have received a ‘revelation’ declaring Jesus
to be God. Whence, indeed, must that ‘revelation’ have proceeded ?
The Bible described the circumcision as a covenant which God
had made with Abraham. The Lord had instructed Abraham about the
circumcision as follows: “As for you, you must keep my covenant,
you and your descendants after you for the generation to come.’”
(Genesis 17:9-14). The Bible quotes God as having told Moses, “‘On
the eighth day the boy is to be circumcised.’” (Leviticus 12:3).
Jesus, too, had observed this divine commandment: “On the eighth
day, when it was time to circumcise him .....” (Luke 2:21) Jesus
had never instructed anyone against the circumcision. This had been
for the simple reason that he had never received such a revelation in
the first place. But observe what Paul says: “.... if you let yourselves
be circumcised Christ will be of no value to you at all.” (Galatians
5:2). Whence did Paul receive this ‘revelation’ ? Of a certainty, not
from God,if not, then where from indeed?
The major reason behind the allegation that Muhammad (e)
had his revelations from the Devil has been that the Qur'an refuted
the crucifixion and salvation of humanity through the sacrifice of a
single individual. There are numerous verses in the Qur'an wherein
Jesus and his mother have been praised and have found the most
reverential mention. It may also be remembered that Maryam has been
the only woman to be referred by name in the Qur'an. The Qur'an
further describes even the miracle wrought through Jesus which has
not been recorded in the Bible like his having breathed life into birds
of clay (3:49). The incident wherein the baby Jesus had spoken from
his cradle which the Qur'an describes (19:30) is not mentioned
anywhere in the Bible. There is nothing in the Qur'an that serve to
tarnish the lofty character of Jesus. Here it is especially relevant that
according to the Gospel of John, the first miracle of Christ had been
that he had produced wine at a marriage function in Canaan (John
2:1-11). There is, however, no such reference in the Qur'an.
The Biblical concept has been that “... anyone who is hung
on a tree is under God’s curse.” (Deuteronomy 21:23). The Jews
had thought that they had had Jesus accursed by way of impaling him
onto the cross. Paul, too, says the same thing. “Christ redeemed us
from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us, for it is
written: ‘Cursed is everyone who is hung on a tree.’” (Galatians
3:13). It follows from this that the crucifixion has only served to make
of Jesus an accursed person. But the Qur'an does not accept the idea
that Jesus had become so accursed for the sins of the whole world.
How can anyone believe that God never heard the prayer of Jesus
which he made in order that he be saved from the accursed wooden
cross (Mathew 29:39) without believing in the very rejection of divine
mercy to Jesus? The Qur'an, however, teaches that God had, by way
of saving Jesus from the accursed wooden cross, undermined the
conspiracy of the Jews. (4:157,158)
The Jews contend that Jesus had become accursed by way of
his being impaled upon the cross.
Paul contends that Jesus had become accursed by way of his
dying upon the cross.
The Qur'an contends that God saved Prophet Jesus from the
Which among these is the revelation of the Satan? Is it the one
which glorifies Jesus or is it the one which makes of him an accursed
In short, therefore, the stark reality is that those who strive to
produce proofs to the effect that the Qur'an’s has been a satanic
revelation, have kept falling into the pitfalls of their own making.


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