Answering Christianity Research Center
MAIN BOARD (You must register to post) => GENERAL TOPICS | BOARD ANNOUNCEMENTS => Topic started by: Uzair Ahmed on December 22, 2014, 03:55:12 AM
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Assalam-Alaikum
I Still don't understand why Muslim man are allowed to have sex with slaves? Even if the Muslims man is married. I mean fornication is forbidden in Islam. Then why this thing isn't considered as fornication?
There is an article on "Answering Christianity" but this does not address the issue.
http://www.answering-christianity.com/right_hand_possession.htm
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the law of taking captive of wars as belongings of a master have existed in covenants prior to Islam.
modern practise for many slaves/captive of wars, they are kept in slavery camps.
while the practise in the past as described in Quran+Hadith was that slaves/captive of wars would be part of household members.
They need to be given clothes, food as well. Thus such lawful sexual relation is tied by status of a master and his female slave.