1.2.8 Summary: What is a "Trinity"?:
n the above historical analysis, we learned that in 325C.E., the Trinitarian church set forth the doctrine of homoousious meaning: of "co-equality, co-eternity, and consubstantiality" of the second person of the trinity with the Father. The doctrine became known as the Creed of Nicea. But they also went on to develop the doctrine of "blind faith." This is because those who developed the "Trinity" doctrine were unable to define it in any manner that could not be refuted by the unwavering Unitarians Christians through the Bible. In the beginning they tried to defend the "Trinity" through logic and the Bible. This continued for a long time until the Trinitarian church finally gave up on ever substantiating their claims through the Bible. So they demanded blind faith in their doctrines. Anyone who did not believe blindly and dared to question them would be branded a heretic and tortured or killed. The following is only a small sampling of the verses of the Bible which refute this definition:
Jesus and God can not be co-equal because the Bible says:
"... my Father is greater than I."
Obviously if God is greater than Jesus (pbuh) then they can not be equal. We also read:
"But of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father."
If Jesus and God were equal then it follows that they will be equal in knowledge. But as we can see, God is greater in knowledge than Jesus (pbuh).
"And Jesus increased in wisdom and stature..."
and "Though he were a Son, yet learned he obedience by the things which he suffered."
If God and Jesus are equal to one-another then did God too have to "increase in wisdom and stature"? Did God too have to learn obediance? To whom would He have to be obediant? To another side of his own essence?
God is claimed to have "begotten" Jesus (pbuh). Jesus (pbuh) is claimed to be the "Son" of God. "Beget" is a verb which implies an action. No matter how you define what God actually did in order to "beget" Jesus (pbuh), any definition must require that God Almighty performed some action and then Jesus (pbuh) came into being. Before God performed this action Jesus was not. After God performed this action Jesus came into being. Thus, not only is Jesus (pbuh) not eternal, since there was a time (before the "begetting") when he did not exist, but he can also never be co-eternal with God since God was in existence at a time when Jesus was not. This is very simple grade-school logic.
First go back and read the comments on co-equality and co-eternity. Next, remember when Jesus is claimed to have died? (Mark 15:37, John 19:30). If God and Jesus are one substance then God died also. But then who was governing all of creation? Further, remember:
"And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, he said, Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit: and having said thus, he gave up the ghost."
If Jesus and God were "one substance" then Jesus (pbuh) would not need to send his spirit to God because it is already God's own spirit, who is also Jesus. Remember:
"And he went a little farther, and fell on his face, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not as I will, but as thou wilt"
And "I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me."
"He (Jesus) went away again the second time, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if this cup may not pass away from me, except I drink it, thy will be done."
Both these verses tell us that Jesus and God have two different will and that Jesus' will is subordinate to that of God. If Jesus and God were one substance then this ONE substance must only have only ONE will.
"So then after the Lord had spoken unto them, he was received up into heaven, and sat on the right hand of God."
If Jesus and God are "one substance" then how can one substance sit on the right hand side of itself?
"And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all."
1 Corinthians 15:28
If Jesus and God are "one substance" then how can one substance be "subdued" unto itself?
"And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?"
If Jesus and God are one substance then how can ONE substance forsake itself? Why would ONE substance need to pray to itself?
Tom Harpur says:
"The idea of the Second Person of a Holy Trinity knowing what it is to be God-forsaken has only to be stated to be recognized as absurd"
For Christ's Sake, pp. 45.
"Wherefore I say unto you, All manner of sin and blasphemy shall be forgiven unto men: but the blasphemy [against] the [Holy] Ghost shall not be forgiven unto men. And whosoever speaketh a word against the Son of man, it shall be forgiven him: but whosoever speaketh against the Holy Ghost, it shall not be forgiven him, neither in this world, neither in the [world] to come."
If God, Jesus and the Holy Ghost are "the same substance" then how can a blasphemy against Jesus be forgiven while a blasphemy against the Holy Ghost can not be forgiven?
Even explaining the supposed "Trinity" away as a "mystery" does not hold water. In 1 Corinthians 14:33 we read "For God is not [the author] of confusion." Thus, confusion can never be His very nature.
Even if we were to chose to completely disregard the above verses, even then we find that we still can not chalk it up to being a "mystery." For example, some members of the Church will tell us that we do not need to know how an engine operates in order to drive a car. However, this line of reasoning is faulty since I can make a conscious effort to study automotive mechanics and arrive at a detailed understanding of these concepts. In the case of the Trinity, however, no Trinitarian has ever claimed to be able to fully "understand" or explain it within the context of the Biblical verses, some of which are mentioned above. They simply tell us it is "a mystery," and to "have faith." This even though nowhere in the Bible, not even once, does God Himself ever explicitly say "I am a trinity, do not try to understand. Just have faith." At least in that case we could say that the command came from God (and not the Church) and that we are doing it out of obediance to the command of God.
THIS is why blind faith was demanded, and THIS is why twelve million Christians were put to death by the church as heretics in the notorious Church "Inquisitions" (Apology for Muhammad and the Qur'an, John Davenport).
What we have learned in this chapter is that:
1) There is no mention of a "Trinity" in the Bible by God, Jesus, Paul, or anyone else. The Pauline (Roman Catholic) church fabricated it around the fourth century CE and Biblical verses were then casually "inserted" into the Bible to validate this concept (such as 1 John 5:7 which all recent Bibles now discard). Jesus, Matthew, John, Luke, Mark and all of the apostles, even Paul, were completely unaware of any "Trinity." Eminent Christian scholars (Yes, even Roman Catholics) today readily recognize this as a known fact in some of their own most prominent books and approved references. We have seen how the Bible does not contain a single verse validating the "Trinity" and that the only reason Christians believe in it is because the Church has taken it upon itself to "explain" and "clarify" the Bible for them. Most of these explanations consist of:
Quoting verses where Jesus is made to "imply" that he is God, or
Allowing a preconceived doctrine to color one's translation of the Greek text so that the divinity of Jesus becomes "clear" in the English "translation," or
Quoting verses out of context.
2) Since there is no Trinity, therefore, if Jesus (pbuh) is a god then this requires that he be a separate god from God. This means that there must be at least two gods in existence, but this contradicts verse after verse of the Bible, all of which constantly beat us over the head with the fact that there is only ONE god in existence (e.g. Isaiah 43:10-11, Deuteronomy 4:39, Isaiah 45:18, etc.) and which is why verses verifying a "Trinity" needed to be inserted in the first place (Such as 1 John 5:7, which has now been discarded).
3) Since Jesus (pbuh) can not be god, and he himself never claimed to be a god and never asked anyone to worship him but only "the Father," therefore God Almighty is the only one who must be worshipped (John 17:3, John 4:2, John 4:23, Matthew 7:21, Matthew 22:37..etc.).
4) The "original sin of Adam" which mankind is supposed to have inherited was a fabrication of Paul. It is explicitly refuted in the Bible in many places (e.g. Ezekiel 18:19-20, Deuteronomy 24:16, Jeremiah 31:29-30, Ezekiel 18:1-9).
5) Since Jesus (pbuh) can be neither a god nor a Son of God (in the literal orthodox sense), and since the "original sin" is a fabrication not taught by Jesus (pbuh), therefore, the "atonement" is also exposed as not part of the message of Jesus but a later addition to it. In other words, if we do not bear the "original sin of Adam" then there is no need for Jesus (pbuh) or anyone else to atone for it. This is simple logic. You don't need the fire department if there is no fire.
6) Jesus (pbuh) never taught any of the above concepts to his followers. He only taught them to faithfully follow the religion of Moses (pbuh). Once we recognize the fact that all of these doctrines were later insertions into the religion of Jesus, then we become ready to recognize Jesus' (pbuh) true message as a simple continuation of the religion of Moses (pbuh)(Matthew 5:17-18, Matthew 19:16-21). He was simply sent to rectify the Jewish religion, return it to the original message preached by Moses (pbuh), and discard the innovations and changes which had been introduced into it by a handful of the unscrupulous.
7) Historical facts show how Jesus' (pbuh) message was directed at the Jews only. It was only changed from this original form after it was taken to those it was never intended for, the pagan gentiles.
8) Paul is the author of the majority of the books of the New Testament. The rest were fabricated by his followers and were not written by the apostles of Jesus (pbuh). The supporting evidence of these claims from these books themselves is overwhelming. The teaching of Paul in the Bible totally contradict the teachings of Jesus himself and include obvious discrepancies even in such fundamental matters as his (Paul's) conversion to Christianity and his acceptance among the apostles. He claims that the apostles of Jesus are lazy, misguided, hypocrites, and also proudly proclaims to us that he has no need of learning from the apostles. Their knowledge of the message of Jesus is flawed and in need of correction from his teachings based upon the authority of his "visions."
9) Countless Biblical scholars themselves admit that it was a common practice at the time to insert and remove verses of the Bible and even to claim that they were the words of Jesus (pbuh), God Almighty, and others without any reservation whatsoever. They readily admit that the speeches found in the Bible were never made by the claimed speakers. The vast majority of these speeches were the work of the authors and their "conception" of what these Biblical characters would most likely have said.
10) All of this was revealed to us by God in the Noble Qur'an over 1400 years ago. It has only been independently verified by the West in this century.
11) All of this, in addition to the prophesies of Muhammad (pbuh) in the Bible (Chapter 6) and the previous evidence of distortion in the Bible continually verify the claim of the Qur'an that mankind had taken great liberties with God's scriptures and thus it was necessary for God to send down His final message, the message of Islam, in order to restore His original teachings sent down to His previous prophets including His elect prophet Jesus (pbuh).
"And if it be said unto them: Follow that which Allah has revealed, they say: Nay, but we follow that wherein we found our fathers. What! Even though the devil was inviting them to the torture of the fire?"
The noble Qur'an, Lukman(31):21
"Allah coineth a similitude: A man in relation to whom are several partners quarreling, and a man belonging wholly to one man. Are the two equal in similitude? Praise be to Allah, but most of them know not. Lo! you will die (O Muhammad) and Lo! they will die. Then lo! on the day of resurrection, before your lord will you dispute. And who does greater wrong than he who lies against Allah and denied the truth when it reached him? Is there not in hell an abode for the disbelievers? And whosoever brings the truth and believes therein, such are the God-fearing. They shall have what they will of their Lord's bounty. That is the reward of those who excel in good. Allah will absolve them of the worst of what they did, and will award them their reward from the best of what they used to do. Will not Allah defend His servant? And they frighten you with those besides Him. He whom Allah sends astray, for him there is no guide. And him who Allah guides, for him there is no misleader. Is not Allah mighty, able to requite (the wrong)?"
The noble Qur'an, Al-Zumar(39):27-36
"But in vain they do worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men."
Matthew 15:9 and Mark 7:7