messengers sent to their own folk and different questions

[H.]

assalamu alaikum,

i have multiple questions which are unrelated but i decided to put them in 1 article inshaAllah.

firstly the quran says

14:4, And We did not send any messenger except [speaking] in the language of his people to state clearly for them, and Allah sends astray [thereby] whom He wills and guides whom He wills. And He is the Exalted in Might, the Wise.

quran 30:47, Verily We sent before thee (Muhammad) messengers to their own folk. Then we took vengeance upon those who were guilty (in regard to them). To help believers is ever incumbent upon Us.

so allah sent messengers to their own people and they spoke the same language of the people.

in the quran we see many times that allah made the injeel, and that he gave the injeel to jesus as.

the quran says that jesus was sent to the children of israel, so of course he has to speak the language of those people. sp the problem is, why is the word injeel used? injeel is a greek word and not hebrew like the children of israel spoke? Why did jesus come with the injeel to the children of israel if he is to speak in the same language as the people. see this video if osama abdallah allows me to post the link for more on this: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=oU8Rhw1SEGc&t=393s

2. in quran 5:27 why did allah want a sacrifice, for what reason? Also why did he accept the sacrifice from one and not the other?

3. sunan nisai 3478 says:  was narrated from Abu Hurairah that a man from Banu Fazarah came to the Messenger of Allah and said:
"My wife has given birth to a black boy." The Messenger of Allah said: "Do you have camels?" He said: "Yes." He said: "What color are they?" He said: "Red." He said: "Are there any gray ones among them?" He said: "There are some gray ones among them." He said: "Where do you think they come from?" He said: "Perhaps it is hereditary." He said: "Likewise, perhaps this is hereditary."

this seems to me very illogical that it was hereditary, to me it seems like she had sex with a slave why would muhammad say such a thing?

4. final question, a anti islamic guy said that this verse in quran 33:50, O Prophet, indeed We have made lawful to you your wives to whom you have given their due compensation and those your right hand possesses from what Allah has returned to you [of captives] and the daughters of your paternal uncles and the daughters of your paternal aunts and the daughters of your maternal uncles and the daughters of your maternal aunts who emigrated with you and a believing woman if she gives herself to the Prophet [and] if the Prophet wishes to marry her, [this is] only for you, excluding the [other] believers. We certainly know what We have made obligatory upon them concerning their wives and those their right hands possess, [but this is for you] in order that there will be upon you no discomfort. And ever is Allah Forgiving and Merciful.

shows that if anyone wants to have sex with muhammad she can offer herself, and then it says this is only for the prophet. Why is this only for the prophet? why did he have more than 4 wives? why does he get special rights, i know he is the prophet, but why these rights

jazakallah khair and shukran

hani

[Dr Tazeen]

1.

The Arabic word Injil (??) as found in Islamic texts, and now used also by Muslim non-Arabs and Arab non-Muslims, is derived from the Syriac Aramaic word awongaleeyoon (??) found in the Peshitta (Syriac translation of the Bible),[1] which in turn derives from the Greek word euangelion (?)[2] of the originally Greek language New Testament, where it means "good news" (from Greek "?? ??"; Old English "g?dspel"; Modern English "gospel", or "evangel" as an archaism, cf. e.g. Spanish "evangelio")

 The Syriac language is a dialect of Middle Aramaic that emerged in Edessa, Assyria-Upper Mesopotamia, in the early 1st century AD, and is considered closely related to the Aramaic of Jesus.

Wikipedia.

So the basis of word Injeel is derived from Syriac aramic, which is closely related to the aramic of Jesus a.s.

2.

There is nothing in that verse like Allah wanted a sacrifice.

It was not accepted from one person because Allah does not go for the materialistic form of sacrifice, He would accept the taqwa,which resides in the heart.

And recite to them the story of Adam's two sons, in truth, when they both offered a sacrifice [to Allah ], and it was accepted from one of them but was not accepted from the other. Said [the latter], "I will surely kill you." Said [the former], "Indeed, Allah only accepts from the righteous [who fear Him or muttaqeen].(5:27)

The other person was lacking taqwa.

3.

If Prophet Muhammad s.a.w.w. had justified the black kid,it means the woman had not committed the adultery.It also points towards the science of genetics.

There is no indication from the hadees that the woman had committed adultery, and the colour of the boy is not any evidence to convict someone.The hadees provides the rule.

4.

The case which was allowed only for Prophet Muhammad s.a.w.w. was WITHOUT paying meher.If any girl wished to do so,sh was allowed without receiving meher.

For all muslim men, paying meher is obligatory unless the wife voluntarily leaves her right of meher.

If all these women were allowed ONLY for Prophet Muhammad s.a.w.w, then no muslim man could marry his cousin, as the verse mentions them as well.

It is the condition which is only for Prophet Muhammad s.a.w.w.

[Dr Tazeen]