Answering Christianity Research Center

Selamun aleykum

I checked the forums using the search engine, I couldn't find anyone mentioning this! (If there is, i'm very sorry!)(title is to show off and get attention to this topic)

Look, when people like david wood say: there is 0 proof of naming people after pious persons existed in 1st century israel.

And then he claims this by using more hadith(not even sahi bukhari/muslim) to show people are confused and didn't know about the naming thing ....

Let's see what LUKE 1:59-62 says

(njkv)

(59) So it was, on the eighth day, that they came to circumcise the child; and they would have called him by the name of his father, Zacharias.(60) His mother answered and said, “No; he shall be called John.”

(61) But they said to her, “There is no one among your relatives who is called by this name.” (62) So they made signs to his father—what he would have him called.

So when they come next time and say no such thing existed in israel, and say it's a pure excuse of the prophet to make up his error. Just use this luke verse!!

Peace brothers and sisters