Answering Christianity Research Center

Pokój z Tobą akhi Idris!

Read my previous two posts...

Now clear the thing 'The name Ahmad don't exist' from your mind!

How could I miss this?

I will now translate the verse including the previous word and see what happens!!!!!!!



փառաւորի , և անուն նորա ՛ի ծագաց երկրի
Meaning: glorify his name and the ends of the earth !!! (Google Translate here )

փառաւորի և անուն նորա ՛ի ծագաց երկրի
Meaning: and glorify his name in the ends of the earth !!! (Google Translate here )

Now remember your first post here!

"Sing to the LORD a new hymn! Glorify his name from the uttermost part of the earth! O ones going down into the sea, and sailing it; the islands, and the ones dwelling in them."

NOTE: the greek word ὕμνος (humnos) analogically to ὑμνέω (humneo) means sing an hymn (praise unto = ar. tahmid = tasbih = nashid)! The phrase 'glorify his name' in other words is to 'praise his name' and in arabic literally goes like this: 'ahmad'u ismuh'u' (from hamd and ism). Similarly when we say e.g "(inni) ahmad'u Allah'a" i.e. "I praise or glorify Allah" = singular form. It depends on the situation. In plural we pronounced also as "(nahnu) n'ahmad'u Allah'a" i.e. "We praise Allah" but from the context of the passage it is clear that not 'we' but rather it is formulated in the sense of "O you, glorify the name of the Lord" meaning that God Almighty is telling them here to "glorify his name", thus in plural in arabic it reads verbally (in this case) as "(antum) ahmad'u Allah'a"! Now, when we change the order of the words 'ahmad'u ismuh'u', instead of "glorify his name", we will obtain "his name is glorious" i.e. in arabic 'ismuh'u ahmad' (i.e. his name is Ahmad) identically to that which was revealed in the Quran, sura 61:6! It is obvious that Jesus (Pbuh) qouted his name from the Old Testament, since Allah Almighty taught him about the wisdom of the Torah and the Gospel !!! Subhannallah, isn't amazing the arabic name Ahmad ?

Yes it is akhi!

The coma after the word փառաւորի (Glorify) gives us an advantage than the greek verse you quoted. Because with the coma the verse makes more sense.

"Ahmad, his name in the ends of the earth."

I think the name Ahmad is really there! Alhamdulillah!!!

Tahmeed

Yeah I am sure this is the page, bro. The verse numbers are exactly as in the modern bible.



Zoomed.....


The fact that I am going to tell you know- I found out 4 days earlier. But I thought you would lose hope so I didn't say.

The name Ahmad doesn't exist, I am truly truly sorry for that. 



և անուն նորա ՛ի ծագաց երկրի
and his name in the ends of the earth (From Google T. = https://translate.google.com/?hl=en#hy/en/%D6%87%20%D5%A1%D5%B6%D5%B8%D6%82%D5%B6%20%D5%B6%D5%B8%D6%80%D5%A1%20%D5%9B%D5%AB%20%D5%AE%D5%A1%D5%A3%D5%A1%D6%81%20%D5%A5%D6%80%D5%AF%D6%80%D5%AB )

But I couldn't figure out what is written in the line about authority, not in the eastern one, not in Voscan's one. So we can still prove his existence if we can prove it means 'the mark of authority in his back'.  This verse simply do not exist in modern bible, so something is fishy, cuz the rest is kept exactly the same but this verse- vanish! So pls dear bro don't lose hope.

Now why did I hid that fact for 4 days and why did I exposed that now? Because you just said something u didn't earlier!

1666 and 1733 edition are a copy of an ancient Armenian translation of the Bible (5th century A.D) which was based on Septuagint.

How can you be so sure they are the exact copy? I will post two images shortly and prove that even 1666 and 1733 versions differ a little! So I say the name 'Ahmad' is obviously in the 5th century bible, which u just mentioned! Perhaps Voscan changed it. Because the later verses speak of islands (Arabia is a peninsula), village of Kedar, deserts, making war with kafirs- everything just perfectly fits in! It is obviously Prophet Ahmad.

Keep up, don't give up- we can still do it!
Tahmeed

JajakAllahu khair bro Osama,

Thanks for the logical explanation.

Can you pls translate the link in Multaqa Ahl al Hadeeth too? Pls it's urgent. I have not started debate on that topic yet, pls tell that to Sam.

The discussionin that link is good I guess as I have seen people referring to it in another forum too. So pls someone translate it.

By the way the tongue sucking hadith is explained here.

http://thefactsaboutislam.blogspot.co.uk/2011/01/explaining-tongue-sucking-hadith.html

Peace....

Eidukom Mubarak, taqabbal'Allahu minna wa minkom, wa ghafara lana wa lakom insha'Allah ajmain !

Thanks for the additional akhi Idris 

You are not getting the whole doctrine of Trinity and shirk, bro Truthseeker!

There are mainly three states of matter- solid, liquid and gas.

Father is solid, as the ultimate power!
Son is liquid, walked on water!
Holy Spirit is gas, as it is a spirit!

But there are other states too.....

So Bose–Einstein condensate would be Melchizedek!!! Saying that he had no beginning and end is making him God- Nauzubillah!

As for other states.... one is for Mary worshiping, and the others are just empty slots in case if you want to make more gods!!!

Also mister Jesus, you are talking about classic physics- that of Newton. But that's only for explaining general things. That's not reality. The real physics is 'Relative Physics"- that of Einstein. And that says universe is 4D, not 3D with 1D time. Time and Space are not separate.

4D- as I said, the 4th place is for Melchizedek!

By the way, scientists say there may be more dimensions! Empty slots!

They want to prove trinity with science!.........so..........

Father=Son X Holy Spirit² (E=mc²) [As the Father is greater than the son, born of Holy Spirit !!!]

Nonsense. is there anything simpler than "God is one and only one"??

Assalamu alaikum wa rahmatullah,

I believe it can not be a coincidence, since Kab al'Ahbar (a learned Jewish Rabbi) said in one of narrations that he find in the Torah: "My servant Ahmad, Chosen one…" and this clearly refers to Isaiah 42:1 !!!

Can you pls give me the reference akhi? It's very important. I need that in FB!!!

Tahmeed

Assalamu alaikum dear brothers and sisters,

I saw the following thing on FB (Christian Awakening vs Bible's photo) and it's very interesting! You may like it even if you knew it before!

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Tanakh(Old Testament) rejects Christian's salvation. Christians deceiving and changing the name of Jesus in Gospels.

“Don’t rely on ‘princes’ or on that ‘son of man’ —he has no ‘salvation’! When his spirit departs he will turn back into his dust; on that very day all his schemes will be destroyed!” (Tehillim / Psalms146:3-4).

The term the Son of Man is used to refer to Jesus 32 times in Matthew,
The term the Son of man is in Mark 15 times,
The term the Son of man is in Luke 26 times.
The term the Son of man is in John 12 times.

In the first three gospels the title is always recorded as having been used by Jesus of himself and never by angel, by man, or by demon. "Just" Jesus as the "son of man."

Yet G-d warns you that the "son of man" has no salvation.
The son of many cannot save you.

But doesn't Jesus Hebrew name mean salvation?
First of all Jesus doesn't have a Hebrew name. The Christian bible was written in Greek, not in Hebrew. If Jesus ever lived no one knows what his Hebrew name might have been. It is impossible that it was the Hebrew name for "salvation."

Why?
Because Hebrew nouns are either feminine or masculine. There is no "gender neutral" noun. The Hebrew word for salvation is a FEMININE noun (יְשׁוּעָה - y'shu'AH) . Feminine as in female, girl, woman. . . not a man (let alone a son of man).

Hebrew is not spelled with vowles, but when voclaized there is a man's name spelled somewhat similarly -- but it is not the Hebrew word for salvation. The male name is "yeshu'a" is יֵשׁוּעַ - yeSHU'a, a masculine proper name.

As I mentioned, all we know of Jesus' "name" is what is found in Greek. In Greek the name is Ἰησοῦς Iesous, transliterating the Aramaic form יֵֽשׁוּ Yéshu (not יֵשׁוּעַ - yeSHU'a, a masculine proper name).

It does not and can not represent the Hebrew form יֵשֽׁוּעַ Yéshu'a because that form would transliterate into "Jesuas" and no missionaries who have tried to make up a Hebrew name for Jesus have ever called him "Jesuas."

The Yeshu'a name game (calling Jesus Yeshua) begain in the 1970s with the various Christian groups established primarily by Baptists to try to convert Jews to Christianity that had a veneer of Jewishness to it (e.g. "Jews for Jesus" and other "messianic" Christian groups). As the Baptists tried to add Jewish trappings to churches (calling their ministers "rabbi" and their churches "Synagogues) they started saying that Jesus' Hebrew name was יֵשֽׁוּעַ Yéshu'a so they could pretend it is the same as the common noun יְשׁוּעָה y'shu'ah (which is feminine and means "salvation").
As shown in this post this deception is transparently obvious to anyone who can read Hebrew (even without understanding the words).

The two words' pronunciation (the feminine word meaning "salvation" versus the male name) are very different: the vowel of the first syllable of יֵשֽׁוּעַ Yéshu'a is tzéré, a full-valued vowel having the sound of the "ay" in the English word bay and the accented syllable is the שֽׁוּ -shu-, whereas the yod in יְשׁוּעָה y'shu'ah is pointed with sh'va na, a "snatched" half-vowel that has no sound of it's own and causes the yod to be subsumed into the compound syllable y'shu-, and the stress in this case falls on the final syllable, -ah.
There is only one G-d, and He does not share His glory with another. There is no salvation from the "son of man."
"Remember the first things of old, that I am G-d and there is no other; I am G-d and there is none like Me." Yeshayahu / Isaiah 46:9

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May Allah give us the power to understand His true religion, as He is the Almighty, Lord of the Universe!
From your brother in Islam,
Tahmeed