Answering Christianity Research Center

Sorry for disturbing,
I want information about jesus glory, she say jesus is only who as glory, for other verse she say this.
Psaume 3:3
So" first of all no, it is David who addresses God and not the other way around, we see him with “But you, O Lord!  » .  We also see that David does not have his own glory because the only glory he has is that of God which is therefore not his!!  Which shows that the Father did not give glory to men."
And for Psaume 8:5
" Then you talk about Psalm 8: 5, again you are wrong, it is Men who speak to God about Jesus!  And not the other way around, we see it with "You did it" and "you have it", if it had been the other way around, the turn would have been "you did it" and <  "You have them", it's just simple English understanding..."
Finally for John 17:24 :
" Then in John 17:22, once again a verse taken out of context since it is not God the father who gave his glory to the apostles but God the sons, Jesus, we see it just in the following verse which differentiates from  elsewhere the father of the son, John 17:23 "I in them, and you in me" basically the glory of Jesus in them and the glory of the father in the son. "
If you can help me and sorry for errors my English is little weak. Thank you

Salaam aleykoum, my question is about the verse 9:29.
I read some of reply about this verse, and he speak about war of Tabuk, but if is about a war of Tabuk why is mentioned about  "until they pay Jizya willingly submitting, fully humbled".
What is the connection of this war to Jizya and until they pay it.
Thank you