Answering Christianity Research Center

Assalamu alaikum,

It wasnt till today that i was faced with this argument, so i am looking forward to ur answers inshaAllah. The quran says In the story of Joseph, Joseph interprets the dream of his companion in the prison and says: O my two companions of the prison! As to one of you, he will pour out the wine for his lord to drink: and as for the other, he will be crucified, and the birds will eat from his head. Thus is the case judged concerning which you both did enquire. [Qur'an 12:41]

As for the mention of crucifixion in the time of Moses, when the Pharaoh's magicians believed in the message of Moses, the Pharaoh threatened them by saying:

Be sure I will cut off your hands and your feet on apposite sides, and I will cause you all to die on the cross. [Qur'an 7:124]

(Pharaoh) said: Ye put your faith in him before I give you leave. Lo! he doubtless is your chief who taught you magic! But verily ye shall come to know. Verily I will cut off your hands and your feet alternately, and verily I will crucify you every one. [Qur'an 26:49]

(Pharaoh) said: "Believe ye in Him before I give you permission? Surely this must be your leader, who has taught you magic! be sure I will cut off your hands and feet on opposite sides, and I will have you crucified on trunks of palm-trees: so shall ye know for certain, which of us can give the more severe and the more lasting punishment!" [Qur'an 20:71]

The argument against these verses is that there was no record of execution in egypt at that time at all.  And i quote: " We have, however, no record that Egyptians used crucifixion as punishment in the time of Moses (1450 BC, conservative date; 1200 BC at the latest) or even Joseph (1880 BC, conservative date). Crucifixion only becomes a punishment much later in history and then first in another culture before it has been taken over by the Egyptians. Such threats by a Pharaoh at these times are historically inaccurate."

How do i respond to these claims

Jazakallah khair

Assalamu alaikom,

I was having an online diacussion with someone, and he tried to prove that muhammad had bad hygienic rules, and pointed out 2 things. The well with dead dogs ( which i already refuted him on ) and that muhammad saws used to leave urine under his bed. See the following ahadith:

Abu dawud 24, The Prophet (ﷺ) had a wooden vessel under his bed in which he would urinate at night.

Sunan nisai : Vol. 1, Book 1, Hadith 32, "The Prophet (ﷺ) had a vessel made from a date tree in which he would urinate and place it under the bed."

Now my question is, why would muhammad keep a vessel or
Bottle of urine under his bed? Is this not dirty, smelly/stinky and unhygoienic.
Please answer inshaAllah

Jazakallah khair

assalamu alaikum,

i have a question regarding the wall of yajuj and majuj
lets firstly see what the quran says about it:
quran 18:94, MUHSIN KHAN
They said: "O Dhul-Qarnain! Verily! Ya'juj and Ma'juj (Gog and Magog) are doing great mischief in the land. Shall we then pay you a tribute in order that you might erect a barrier between us and them?"

YUSUF ALI
They said: "O Zul-qarnain! the Gog and Magog (People) do great mischief on earth: shall we then render thee tribute in order that thou mightest erect a barrier between us and them?

so a wall or barrier was built between them. now for the question: But what stops those people from climbing the mountanins and going over? also cant they just go around the mountain?

jazakallah khair.

assalamu alaikum,

i have multiple questions which are unrelated but i decided to put them in 1 article inshaAllah.

firstly the quran says

14:4, And We did not send any messenger except [speaking] in the language of his people to state clearly for them, and Allah sends astray [thereby] whom He wills and guides whom He wills. And He is the Exalted in Might, the Wise.

quran 30:47, Verily We sent before thee (Muhammad) messengers to their own folk. Then we took vengeance upon those who were guilty (in regard to them). To help believers is ever incumbent upon Us.

so allah sent messengers to their own people and they spoke the same language of the people.

in the quran we see many times that allah made the injeel, and that he gave the injeel to jesus as.

the quran says that jesus was sent to the children of israel, so of course he has to speak the language of those people. sp the problem is, why is the word injeel used? injeel is a greek word and not hebrew like the children of israel spoke? Why did jesus come with the injeel to the children of israel if he is to speak in the same language as the people. see this video if osama abdallah allows me to post the link for more on this: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=oU8Rhw1SEGc&t=393s

2. in quran 5:27 why did allah want a sacrifice, for what reason? Also why did he accept the sacrifice from one and not the other?

3. sunan nisai 3478 says:  was narrated from Abu Hurairah that a man from Banu Fazarah came to the Messenger of Allah and said:
"My wife has given birth to a black boy." The Messenger of Allah said: "Do you have camels?" He said: "Yes." He said: "What color are they?" He said: "Red." He said: "Are there any gray ones among them?" He said: "There are some gray ones among them." He said: "Where do you think they come from?" He said: "Perhaps it is hereditary." He said: "Likewise, perhaps this is hereditary."

this seems to me very illogical that it was hereditary, to me it seems like she had sex with a slave why would muhammad say such a thing?

4. final question, a anti islamic guy said that this verse in quran 33:50, O Prophet, indeed We have made lawful to you your wives to whom you have given their due compensation and those your right hand possesses from what Allah has returned to you [of captives] and the daughters of your paternal uncles and the daughters of your paternal aunts and the daughters of your maternal uncles and the daughters of your maternal aunts who emigrated with you and a believing woman if she gives herself to the Prophet [and] if the Prophet wishes to marry her, [this is] only for you, excluding the [other] believers. We certainly know what We have made obligatory upon them concerning their wives and those their right hands possess, [but this is for you] in order that there will be upon you no discomfort. And ever is Allah Forgiving and Merciful.

shows that if anyone wants to have sex with muhammad she can offer herself, and then it says this is only for the prophet. Why is this only for the prophet? why did he have more than 4 wives? why does he get special rights, i know he is the prophet, but why these rights

jazakallah khair and shukran

hani

Assalamu alaikum,

I have a small question with regards to if there were prophets between muhammad saws and jesus as.

Because there seems to be in my faulty understanding a discrepancy brtween a hsdith and a couple of verses in the quran and i hope you will explain.

The hadith is bukhari volume 4 book 55 hadith 651 which says: I heard Allah's Apostle saying, "I am the nearest of all the people to the son of Mary, and all the prophets are paternal brothers, and there has been no prophet between me and him (i.e. Jesus)."

And these quranic verses 36:14 onwards,  When We sent to them two but they denied them, so We strengthened them with a third, and they said, "Indeed, we are messengers to you." They said, "You are not but human beings like us, and the Most Merciful has not revealed a thing. You are only telling lies." They said, "Our Lord knows that we are messengers to you, And our duty is only to proclaim the clear Message.." They said, "Indeed, we consider you a bad omen. If you do not desist, we will surely stone you, and there will surely touch you, from us, a painful punishment."And there came from the farthest end of the city a man, running. He said, "O my people, follow the messengers. Follow those who do not ask of you [any] payment, and they are [rightly] guided.

Regarding these verses ibn kathir ibn kathir writes that they got revelation: "so how could you receive revelation when you are human beings and we are human" and "ed from a number of angles. (The first) is that if we take this story at face value, it indicates that these men were Messengers from Allah, may He be glorified, not from the Messiah, peace be upon him"

Do how do i relate the hadith with the quranic ayat

Jazakallah khair

i need a refutation of this video: <removed>

where he shows that prophet muhammad saws stole fasting for ashura from the jews and that the quran promises for the sabians heaven while they were pagans and that he stole ramadan from the sabeans and prayer from the sabeans. he shows from ibn kathir that sabians worship angels, why then would they go to heaven? he goes in depth on more topics, and i have been having doubts because of this video so could someone please send a refutation

jazakallah khair

In sahih bukhari 1145 and also reported in sahih muslim:

Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) (p.b.u.h) said, "Our Lord, the Blessed, the Superior, comes every night down on the nearest Heaven to us when the last third of the night remains, saying: "Is there anyone to invoke Me, so that I may respond to invocation? Is there anyone to ask Me, so that I may grant him his request? Is there anyone seeking My forgiveness, so that I may forgive him?"

So in the last part of the night allah descends but how does this work for all countries around the world? When its morning in america its night in australia. It is always night on some olace on earth correct? Someone posted this to me to show muhammad had a faulty understanding of the world and that he thought the whole world had one time, how do i respond to this claim?

Jazakkallah khair

i saw christian princes new video and i didnt know how to refute it myself, hope someobody can help, https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=068_NsIvfOM