Messianic message is the primary thread that runs through the OT from Gen 3:15 to Malachi 3. The simple fact of this primary purpose of the OT makes any non-Messianic interpretation of a passage such as Isaiah 7:14 obviously biased and questionable. And the fact that Matthew outright states that the prophecy is fulfilled in the birth of the Messiah removes all doubt. If Matthew's statement was all there was, it would be enough to remove all doubt. But there is sufficient evidence to demonstrate that it could not have been fulfilled in any other person. So, there really can be no doubt about the passage at all.
May I ask you then about this "prophecy", which Matthew referred to Jesus?
Matthew 2:13 When they had gone, an angel of the Lord appeared to Joseph in a dream. “Get up,†he said, “take the child and his mother and escape to Egypt. Stay there until I tell you, for Herod is going to search for the child to kill him.â€
14 So he got up, took the child and his mother during the night and left for Egypt, 15 where he stayed until the death of Herod. And so was fulfilled what the Lord had said through the prophet: “
Out of Egypt I called my son.â€
Matthew refers to Hosea 11
Hosea 11:1 When Israel was a child, I loved him,
and out of Egypt I called my son.
2 But the more they were called,
the more they went away from me.
They sacrificed to the Baals
and they burned incense to images.3 It was I who taught Ephraim to walk,
taking them by the arms;
but they did not realize
it was I who healed them.
Was Jesus a worshipper of Baals?