The name "Hira" in Isaiah 29:12 and corrector's attempt to cover it up!

[Idris]

Wa aleikum as-salam wa rahmatullahi wa baraketuh,

I apologize for my late response! Yes, I will get to this discussion insha'Allah but from what I see, our brother Ijaz Ahmad either didn't understood well my research or he simply didn't read it entirely and/or didn't took into account all of the information related e.g. to the issue concerning the so-called "iotacism" which was a problematic one among the Septuagint experts themselves (like Alfred Rahlfs). According to traditional Islamic stories about prophets, it appears that this illiterate from Isaiah 29:12 was ORIGINALLY identified as "Ahmad" and he was connected directly with the character universally known as the "Servant of God" who is described in Isaiah 42 (Ibn Asakir recorded one naration from Ka'b al-Ahbar who found the name Ahmad being ascribed to this servant... in some Yemeni or probably Syriac version of Isaiah that available to him at that time). Besides that, there is a lot of other details which consequently lead in this direction supporting my argument about Ahmad who was originally mentioned in Isaiah as the ultimate redemptive figure but the last editors of the Hebrew Bible restructured the text and changed the whole prophetic narratives in favor of Israel (so they put Jacob/Israel insted of Ahmad!).

Anyway, perhaps the real reason Brother Idjaz Ahmad opposes my research is because he don't believe at all that Isaiah 29:12 is a prophecy about Prophet Mohammed (SAAW) because of the negative context in which the illiterate is put and because no early Muslim scholar ever has quoted the text of Isaiah 29:12 with respect to Prophet Mohammed (SAAW). The first one who started this argumentation was probably Ahmad Deedat.

I will try to enter the discussion in FB as soon as possible insha'Allah.

[Dawud]

Wa aleikum as-salam wa rahmatullahi wa baraketuh,

I apologize for my late response! Yes, I will get to this discussion insha'Allah but from what I see, our brother Ijaz Ahmad either didn't understood well my research or he simply didn't read it entirely and/or didn't took into account all of the information related e.g. to the issue concerning the so-called "iotacism" which was a problematic one among the Septuagint experts themselves (like Alfred Rahlfs). According to traditional Islamic stories about prophets, it appears that this illiterate from Isaiah 29:12 was ORIGINALLY identified as "Ahmad" and he was connected directly with the character universally known as the "Servant of God" who is described in Isaiah 42 (Ibn Asakir recorded one naration from Ka'b al-Ahbar who found the name Ahmad being ascribed to this servant... in some Yemeni or probably Syriac version of Isaiah that available to him at that time). Besides that, there is a lot of other details which consequently lead in this direction supporting my argument about Ahmad who was originally mentioned in Isaiah as the ultimate redemptive figure but the last editors of the Hebrew Bible restructured the text and changed the whole prophetic narratives in favor of Israel (so they put Jacob/Israel insted of Ahmad!).

Anyway, perhaps the real reason Brother Idjaz Ahmad opposes my research is because he don't believe at all that Isaiah 29:12 is a prophecy about Prophet Mohammed (SAAW) because of the negative context in which the illiterate is put and because no early Muslim scholar ever has quoted the text of Isaiah 29:12 with respect to Prophet Mohammed (SAAW). The first one who started this argumentation was probably Ahmad Deedat.

I will try to enter the discussion in FB as soon as possible insha'Allah.

name Ahmad or Ahmod is found in Isaiah in dead sea scrolls, look here


(click to enlarge)



hebrew bible


(click to enlarge)



Word Ahmad in bible

? Ahmad

Bible in hebrew Isaiah 42
http://www.mechon-mamre.org/p/pt/pt1042.htm

DSS orginal manuscripts
http://dss.collections.imj.org.il/isaiah#42:1

freetranslation
https://www.freetranslation.com/


and i made this phtoo also, beacuse we need to compare word HIra with other words which corrector Cb3 tried to connect with, when you compare these obviosly it looks like he tried to correct it to match word Heiras


(click to enlarge)

[QuranSearchCom]

As'salamu Alaikum dear brother Dawud and Idris,

Jazakum Allah Khayr for your research.

Brother Dawud, I have saved and uploaded your images to the website and re-linked them in your post to permanently preserve them with this website, insha'Allah.

Take care,
Osama Abdallah

[Idris]

[QuranSearchCom]

Wa Alaikum As'salam Wa Rahmatu Allah Wa Barakatuh dear brother Idris,

Jazaka Allah Khayr for the response.  Amazing work, masha'Allah wa subhana'Allah. 

Brother, I have uploaded your image above to the website to preserve it.  Keep up the great work!!

Take care,
Osama Abdallah

[Idris]

Salam aleikum wa rahmatullahi wa baraketuh,

I haven't answered on my article for a long time. I just wanted to say that everything is going well alhamdulillah. In the next few days insha'Allah I will share here my critical evaluation of the above objections regarding the claim of the word Hira being mentioned in the text of Isaiah 29:12 according to Codex Sinaiticus. I take full responsibility for the claim and I will defend it with the permission and help of Allah.

I wish you blessed Ramadan, for all brothers and sisters.
Take care,
Idris (Ahmed)

[QuranSearchCom]

Wa Alaikum As'salam Wa Rahmatu Allah Wa Barakatuh,

Ramadan Mubarak to you and to your family as well, insha'Allah, dear brother Idris.  Welcome back akhi.

Take care,
Osama Abdallah

[Dawud]

@IDRIS

How can we tackle this verse in Hebrew


??  ?? ??, -?? ?? --?? -???; ?, ? ??.  {?}   12
and the writing is delivered to him that is not learned, saying: 'Read this, I pray thee'; and he saith: 'I am not learned.

if we compare it to codex sinaiticus

we can clearly see word Hira, which corrector change into HEIRAS to mean hands


isaih in hebrew is older than codex sinaiticus in greek, so if someone say why do we not find word HIra or Hands/Heiras in hebrew bible isaih 29:12?

How do you respond to that?

[Idris]

[Idris]

[QuranSearchCom]

As'salamu Alaikum dear brother Idris and Everyone,

Masha'Allah and may Allah Almighty continue to protect you and bless you with knowledge and skills, akhi, people care a lot about your research.  Your posts on this blog have 10s of thousands of hits, walhamdulillah.

Keep up the great work akhi.

Take care,
Osama Abdallah

[Idris]

As'salamu Alaikum dear brother Idris and Everyone,

Masha'Allah and may Allah Almighty continue to protect you and bless you with knowledge and skills, akhi, people care a lot about your research.  Your posts on this blog have 10s of thousands of hits, walhamdulillah.

Keep up the great work akhi.

Take care,
Osama Abdallah

Wa aleikum as-salam wa rahmatullahi wa baraketuh, thank you dear brother Osama for such kind words and dua. Amin! Same to you akhi.
Alhamdulillah, its realy good to hear that. Its certainly encouraging.

Take care
Idris

[Idris]

[Idris]

Examples of place names ending with -ra [Gk. -??; Hb. = ??] are especially supportive and helpful during a tactical analysis for verification of the Hira thesis. I presupposes that in the Hebrew Vorlage it was written almost certainly as ? which corresponds to the Arabic form ?

Now, it is interesting to note that the Greek translators of LXX (Septuagint) occasionally preferred a declinable forms of certain proper names. For example, the name (Esdras = Ezra) is an ancient Greek rendering of the Hebrew ?? (?Ezra), and as we can note, the LXX translators clearly prefers a declinable form [i.e. ], yet its indeclinable form is also attested in Nehemiah 7:7 as ?? (Esdra).

Thus, based on this one example with the -?? (= ??) ending, we can deduct (or at least assume) that ? (chira) is an indeclinable form, while ?? (chiras) is its declinable form.

NOTE: if someone will spot other examples of Hebrew place names ending specifically with ?? and then transliterated in LXX with -???, please let us known here.


Take care,
Idris