Answering Christianity Research Center

Examples of place names ending with -ra [Gk. -??; Hb. = ??] are especially supportive and helpful during a tactical analysis for verification of the Hira thesis. I presupposes that in the Hebrew Vorlage it was written almost certainly as ? which corresponds to the Arabic form ?

Now, it is interesting to note that the Greek translators of LXX (Septuagint) occasionally preferred a declinable forms of certain proper names. For example, the name (Esdras = Ezra) is an ancient Greek rendering of the Hebrew ?? (?Ezra), and as we can note, the LXX translators clearly prefers a declinable form [i.e. ], yet its indeclinable form is also attested in Nehemiah 7:7 as ?? (Esdra).

Thus, based on this one example with the -?? (= ??) ending, we can deduct (or at least assume) that ? (chira) is an indeclinable form, while ?? (chiras) is its declinable form.

NOTE: if someone will spot other examples of Hebrew place names ending specifically with ?? and then transliterated in LXX with -???, please let us known here.


Take care,
Idris

As'salamu Alaikum dear brother Idris and Everyone,

Masha'Allah and may Allah Almighty continue to protect you and bless you with knowledge and skills, akhi, people care a lot about your research.  Your posts on this blog have 10s of thousands of hits, walhamdulillah.

Keep up the great work akhi.

Take care,
Osama Abdallah

Wa aleikum as-salam wa rahmatullahi wa baraketuh, thank you dear brother Osama for such kind words and dua. Amin! Same to you akhi.
Alhamdulillah, its realy good to hear that. Its certainly encouraging.

Take care
Idris

As-salam aleikum wa rahmatullah,

I'm happy to see a brother who have a courage and creative mind to interpret Isaiah 53 as refering to Prophet Muhammad (?). And yes, based on my analysis I can confirm that Isaiah 53 is indeed, paradoxically, about Rasulullah (?), not Jesus (AS). After I finish Isaiah 29:12 (God willing), I will show insha'Allah in few points how Isaiah 53 actually depicts Prophet Muhammad (?), and especially one detail alludes to him in a truly spectacular way.

Take care,
Idris (Ahmed)

Salam aleikum wa rahmatullahi wa baraketuh,

I haven't answered on my article for a long time. I just wanted to say that everything is going well alhamdulillah. In the next few days insha'Allah I will share here my critical evaluation of the above objections regarding the claim of the word Hira being mentioned in the text of Isaiah 29:12 according to Codex Sinaiticus. I take full responsibility for the claim and I will defend it with the permission and help of Allah.

I wish you blessed Ramadan, for all brothers and sisters.
Take care,
Idris (Ahmed)

Wa aleikum as-salam wa rahmatullahi wa baraketuh,

I apologize for my late response! Yes, I will get to this discussion insha'Allah but from what I see, our brother Ijaz Ahmad either didn't understood well my research or he simply didn't read it entirely and/or didn't took into account all of the information related e.g. to the issue concerning the so-called "iotacism" which was a problematic one among the Septuagint experts themselves (like Alfred Rahlfs). According to traditional Islamic stories about prophets, it appears that this illiterate from Isaiah 29:12 was ORIGINALLY identified as "Ahmad" and he was connected directly with the character universally known as the "Servant of God" who is described in Isaiah 42 (Ibn Asakir recorded one naration from Ka'b al-Ahbar who found the name Ahmad being ascribed to this servant... in some Yemeni or probably Syriac version of Isaiah that available to him at that time). Besides that, there is a lot of other details which consequently lead in this direction supporting my argument about Ahmad who was originally mentioned in Isaiah as the ultimate redemptive figure but the last editors of the Hebrew Bible restructured the text and changed the whole prophetic narratives in favor of Israel (so they put Jacob/Israel insted of Ahmad!).

Anyway, perhaps the real reason Brother Idjaz Ahmad opposes my research is because he don't believe at all that Isaiah 29:12 is a prophecy about Prophet Mohammed (SAAW) because of the negative context in which the illiterate is put and because no early Muslim scholar ever has quoted the text of Isaiah 29:12 with respect to Prophet Mohammed (SAAW). The first one who started this argumentation was probably Ahmad Deedat.

I will try to enter the discussion in FB as soon as possible insha'Allah.

Also, brother Osama, I have sent you into your email some links related to your theory concerning the expression "Jehovah Jireh" (Gen. 22:14). It is possible that it might be what are you suggesting akhi! Masha'Allah.