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The "Son of God" Title in the 1 John 2:22
Jesus is Yahweh the Son? See how Christians got this very wrong in the NT,
using Jesus' words himself!
Also, is Islam the anti-Christ system according to 1 John 2:22?
Note: The (*) links below are html backups of the website's blog topic threads, in case the blog and its database are down.
Father and Son Definitions:
1- What does "The Father" really mean in the Bible? How is it defined in Islam? (see point #5 below) How does the Bible really define it?
2- What does "Son of GOD" really mean in the Bible?
(a)- GOD Almighty, who is not seen by anyone or anything, nor is like unto anyone or anything.
(b)- The World of Command, which is the invisible world of the Beings that were made by the Word and the Spirit.
(c)- The World of Creation, the flush and blood, dust and water physical world and Universes (plural).
Also visit: Is the Noble Quran a Creator or Creation?
5- Is Islam the anti-Christ system according to 1john 2:22? No it isn't. Here are some Bible facts regarding "FATHER" and "SON":
(a)- Allah Almighty is the Believers' only Guardian (المولى):
(b)- FRIENDS = SONS in the Bible and Quran (ولي , وليهما and خليلا):
We further read the following in the Bible:
So being GOD Almighty's "SON" in the Bible is equal to being GOD Almighty's "FRIEND". Now compare this to the following from the Holy Quran:
[002:257] Allah is the friend (ولي) and patron of those who believe. He brings them out of the depths of darkness into light. While those who do not believe, have the forces of evil as their friends; they lead them out of light, into the very depths of darkness. Such ones shall be the inmates of the fire. They will stay there forever.
[003:122] (And remember) when the two groups among you lost heart (and almost fell out), even though Allah was their Friend and Protector (وليهما)? In Allah (alone), should the believers place their trust!
[004:125] Who can be better in religion than one who submits his whole self to God, does good, and follows the way of Abraham the true in Faith? For God did take Abraham for a friend (خليلا).
So the Bible's "FATHER" & "SON" for GOD Almighty and the Believers is clearly metaphoric, and it only means that GOD Almighty:
Is the Protector.
Please visit the following link to further see what Words the Glorious Quran uses for these words and definitions:
Regarding the following verse, and many others like it:
Let us look at Noble Verses 27:59, 3:33, 3:42, 7:144, 22:75, 35:32, 38:47, 39:4 from the Glorious Quran:
[027:059] Say: Praise be to God, and Peace on his servants whom He has chosen اصطفى (for his Message). (Who) is better?- God or the false gods they associate (with Him)?
27:59 قل الحمد لله وسلام على عباده الذين اصطفى ءالله خير اما يشركون
[003:033] God did choose اصطفى Adam and Noah, the family of Abraham, and the family of 'Imran above all people,-
3:33 ان الله اصطفى ادم ونوحا وال ابراهيم وال عمران على العالمين
[003:042] Behold! the angels said: "O Mary! God hath chosen thee اصطفاك and purified thee- chosen thee above the women of all nations.
3:42 واذ قالت الملائكة يامريم ان الله اصطفاك وطهرك واصطفاك على نساء العالمين
Moses! I have chosen thee
اصطفيتك above (other) men, by the mission I
(have given thee) and the words I (have spoken to thee): take then
the (revelation) which I give thee, and be of those who give
[022:075] God chooses يصطفي messengers from angels and from men for God is He Who hears and sees (all things).
22:75 الله يصطفي من الملائكة رسلا ومن الناس ان الله سميع بصير
[035:032] Then We have given the Book for inheritance to such of Our Servants as We have chosen اصطفينا: but there are among them some who wrong their own souls; some who follow a middle course; and some who are, by God's leave, foremost in good deeds; that is the highest Grace.
35:32 ثم اورثنا الكتاب الذين اصطفينا من عبادنا فمنهم ظالم لنفسه ومنهم مقتصد ومنهم سابق بالخيرات باذن الله ذلك هو الفضل الكبير
[038:047] They were, in Our sight, truly, of the company of the Elect المصطفين and the Good.
38:47 وانهم عندنا لمن المصطفين الاخيار
[039:004] Had God wished to take to Himself an (actual) son, He could have chosen لاصطفى whom He pleased out of those whom He doth create: but Glory be to Him! (He is above such things.) He is God, the One, the Irresistible.
39:4 لو اراد الله ان يتخذ ولدا لاصطفى مما يخلق مايشاء سبحانه هو الله الواحد القهار
Furthermore, when Jesus was asked about when the Hour will come, he replied by saying that only GOD Almighty Knows, and that no one knows, and that Jesus himself also didn't know. Please visit:
Jesus spelled it out clearly that he knew NOT. And as to calling GOD Almighty "Father", and that Islam denies that GOD Almighty is an ACTUAL FATHER to anyone, in Islam GOD Almighty is called:
1- Rab - Lord, Father (you are the Rab of your home for being the husband and the father).
2- Wali - Guardian.
In the old Aramaic and Hebrew, GOD Almighty was called what-is-equivalent-to-Islam our Rab and Wali. But that doesn't make GOD Almighty our actual Father. This is exactly as Judaism metaphors such as idolatry is equivalent to spiritual adultery. No Jew is actually married to GOD Almighty to actually commit a personal marriage-adultery against GOD Almighty! Yet, the Jews use metaphors like these. Islam came to straighten all of this out and to set the record straight that GOD Almighty has no son and no daughter. Otherwise, why would GOD Almighty torture us to Hell if we were His perfect sons and daughters?? No imperfect being could be an actual son of GOD Almighty (and no being is the son or daughter of GOD Almighty, period!):
[005:018] (Both) the Jews and the Christians say: "We are sons of God, and his beloved." Say: "Why then doth He punish you for your sins? Nay, ye are but men,- of the men he hath created: He forgiveth whom He pleaseth, and He punisheth whom He pleaseth: and to God belongeth the dominion of the heavens and the earth, and all that is between: and unto Him is the final goal (of all)"
Again, please visit:
6- Did you know that Elohim is Allah [1, *] . The "im" in Hebrew is a majestic plural for GOD Almighty. The root Word is "Eloh". And the more original Jews such as Yemenites and others say Alohim or Alah-im. And when you yourself pronounce it, you do naturally pronounce it with a double "l": Allah. Jews do call Him: Allah-im. Aramaic-speaking people also call GOD Almighty Allah. See the following videos for Biblical references and proofs. Also, pre-Islamic Biblical archeological findings have GOD Almighty as "Allah". So the Original Holy Name for GOD Almighty is not Eloh. It is Allah! Eloh is a Hebrew dialect, which not all Hebrew speakers use anyway. Allah had always been the Original and Universal GOD Almighty even before birth of Judaism, and the existence Hebrew. And Hebrew is a developed language from Phoenician. See the following links:
Do chapter Psalm 110:1 and Matthew 22:41-46 ("The LORD said to my Lord") prove that Jesus is the Creator of the Universe?
Let us look at chapter Psalm 110 and Matthew 22:41-46 from the KJV Bible:
1 The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
2 The LORD shall send the rod of thy strength out of Zion: rule thou in the midst of thine enemies.
3 Thy people shall be willing in the day of thy power, in the beauties of holiness from the womb of the morning: thou hast the dew of thy youth.
4 The LORD hath sworn, and will not repent, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchizedek.
5 The Lord at thy right hand shall strike through kings in the day of his wrath.
6 He shall judge among the heathen, he shall fill the places with the dead bodies; he shall wound the heads over many countries.
7 He shall drink of the brook in the way: therefore shall he lift up the head.
41 While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them,
42 Saying, What think ye of Christ? whose son is he? They say unto him, The son of David.
43 He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying,
44 The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?
45 If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?
46 And no man was able to answer him a word, neither durst any man from that day forth ask him any more questions.
Note: My previous writings were all replaced by the following.
A refutation and exposing of trinity-lies to Psalms 110:1 which is often used by the polytheist trinitarian pagans:
"Elohim means G-d. It is plural, as is Shemayim which means heaven. Plural in Hebrew denotes greatness and in these cases limitlessness. For example, when G-d told Moses that He had made him (Moses) a G-d before Pharaoh, G-d used the word "Elohim" (see Exodus 7:1).
The word you are asking about is G-d's name. It was G-d's response to Moses when
Moses asked G-d His name. It is actually a circular phrase in Hebrew meaning "I
am who I am". It is comprized of four Hebrew letters. These four are
called the Tetragamatron. Since Hebrew contains no vowels, when one writes out the
name, they add A and E in order to say the word. Jews never say G-d's name much less
write it (except in a Torah Scroll). When we come to the four letters, we say HaShem
(the name), or more usually Adonai, which means my L-rd. Adonai
is also used in Hebrew to reference Kings or a sign of respect between positions.
So to make the difference, when Adonai is used specifically for G-d, it is
generally followed with the phrase "....G-d of Israel".
Finally, I don't know if in most English translations of the Hebrew Scriptures you can tell for certain when the Tetragamatron is written or when the word Adonai is written in the Hebrew. I believe "L-rd" is used for both. Example: Psalms 110:1 "The L-rd said to my l-rd". This was a song sung at the Temple. In the Hebrew it is written literally "Said XXXX to my l-rd". Here the XXXX is the Tetragamatron (G-d) followed by the Hebrew word Adonai. David was l-rd (Adonai) over Israel. Jews interpret that Psalm to be in praise of what G-d promised David and his throne."
So the person addressed in Psalm 110:1 (Jews believe he's David, Christians believe he's Jesus) was never actually called "God". He was called "Adoni", which is a term given to human kings for honor and respect (my Lord, my king, etc...).
Notice the liars of the English translators from the polytheist trinitarian pagans say "The LORD said to my Lord...." to create the impression that "LORD" is used for both GOD and Jesus equally in a sense that the two are the same in one; that Jesus is equal to GOD and he is GOD! May they burn in Hell for Eternity for all of the lies they invented against GOD Almighty. Ameen! Their deliberate choice in using "lord" twice as opposed to using the more proper translation such as "GOD said to my master" proves:
1- They are desperate in proving their trinity lie.
2- They strive on playing their dirty and sick word games to further confuse their pagan followers and to convince them more about the trinity lie.
You know, the only reason why I wrote this article several years ago is because one trinitarian flashed these verses in my face in an attempt to prove that trinity existed even in the Old Testament. I find that to be quite hilarious indeed.
There is no question about the Truth!
There is no question that "GOD said to my master" is the most proper translation and meaning to Psalm 110:1 above! Anything else is clear polytheist trinitarian pagans' blasphemy!
Back to Answering Trinity.
My rebuttal to Sam Shamoun's "Examining Psalm 110:1" article.
Islam and the Noble Quran - Questions and Answers.
What is the place of Jesus, Jews and Christians in Islam?
Contradictions and History of Corruption in the Bible.
Prophet Muhammad was foretold by the name in the Bible, in the book of Isaiah and the gospel of John.
What parts of the Bible do Muslims believe are closest to the Truth? and Why?
Send your comments.
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