Do chapter Psalm 110:1 and Matthew 22:41-46 ("The LORD said to my Lord") prove that Jesus is the Creator of the Universe?
Let us look at chapter Psalm 110 and Matthew 22:41-46 from the KJV Bible:
Psalm 110
1 The LORD said unto my Lord,
Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
2 The LORD shall send the rod of thy strength out of Zion: rule thou in the midst of
thine enemies.
3 Thy people shall be willing in the day of thy power, in the beauties of holiness
from the womb of the morning: thou hast the dew of thy youth.
4 The LORD hath sworn, and will not repent, Thou art a priest for ever after the
order of Melchizedek.
5 The Lord at thy right hand shall strike through kings in the day of his wrath.
6 He shall judge among the heathen, he shall fill the places with the dead bodies;
he shall wound the heads over many countries.
7 He shall drink of the brook in the way: therefore shall he lift up the head.
Matthew 22
41 While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them,
42 Saying, What think ye of Christ? whose son is he? They say unto him, The son of David.
43 He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord,
saying,
44 The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I
make thine enemies thy footstool?
45 If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?
46 And no man was able to answer him a word, neither durst any man from that day forth ask
him any more questions.
Note: My previous writings were all replaced by the following.
A refutation and exposing of trinity-lies to Psalms 110:1 which is often used by the polytheist trinitarian pagans:
From http://www.gospelfortoday.org/gftforum/viewtopic.php?p=11881:
"Elohim means G-d. It is plural, as is Shemayim which means heaven. Plural in Hebrew denotes greatness and in these cases limitlessness. For example, when G-d told Moses that He had made him (Moses) a G-d before Pharaoh, G-d used the word "Elohim" (see Exodus 7:1).
The word you are asking about is G-d's name. It was G-d's response to Moses when
Moses asked G-d His name. It is actually a circular phrase in Hebrew meaning "I
am who I am". It is comprized of four Hebrew letters. These four are
called the Tetragamatron. Since Hebrew contains no vowels, when one writes out the
name, they add A and E in order to say the word. Jews never say G-d's name much less
write it (except in a Torah Scroll). When we come to the four letters, we say HaShem
(the name), or more usually Adonai, which means my L-rd. Adonai
is also used in Hebrew to reference Kings or a sign of respect between positions.
So to make the difference, when Adonai is used specifically for G-d, it is
generally followed with the phrase "....G-d of Israel".
Finally, I don't know if in most English translations of the Hebrew Scriptures you can
tell for certain when the Tetragamatron is written or when the word Adonai is written in
the Hebrew. I believe "L-rd" is used for both. Example:
Psalms 110:1 "The L-rd said to my l-rd". This was a
song sung at the Temple. In the Hebrew it is written literally "Said
XXXX to my l-rd". Here the XXXX is the Tetragamatron (G-d)
followed by the Hebrew word Adonai. David was l-rd (Adonai) over Israel. Jews
interpret that Psalm to be in praise of what G-d promised David and his throne."
My comments:
So the person addressed in Psalm 110:1 (Jews believe he's David, Christians believe he's Jesus) was never actually called "God". He was called "Adoni", which is a term given to human kings for honor and respect (my Lord, my king, etc...).
Notice the liars of the English translators from the polytheist trinitarian pagans say "The LORD said to my Lord...." to create the impression that "LORD" is used for both GOD and Jesus equally in a sense that the two are the same in one; that Jesus is equal to GOD and he is GOD! May they burn in Hell for Eternity for all of the lies they invented against GOD Almighty. Ameen! Their deliberate choice in using "lord" twice as opposed to using the more proper translation such as "GOD said to my master" proves:
1- They are desperate in proving their trinity lie.
2- They strive on playing their dirty and sick word games to further confuse their pagan followers and to convince them more about the trinity lie.
You know, the only reason why I wrote this article several years ago is because one trinitarian flashed these verses in my face in an attempt to prove that trinity existed even in the Old Testament. I find that to be quite hilarious indeed.
There is no question about the Truth!
There is no question that "GOD said to my master" is the most proper translation and meaning to Psalm 110:1 above! Anything else is clear polytheist trinitarian pagans' blasphemy!
My rebuttal to Sam Shamoun's "Examining Psalm 110:1" article.
Islam and the Noble Quran - Questions and Answers.
What is the place of Jesus, Jews and Christians in Islam?
Contradictions and History of Corruption in the Bible.
What parts of the Bible do Muslims believe are closest to the Truth? and Why?