The following was text debate that I had on the internet.
Note: The large emphasis and fonts below are mine.
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Arabic is estimated to date back 8000 to 20000 years by non-Muslim researchers:
Also visit:
Matthew 7:22-23: GOD sent Jesus to be Christianity's lying spirit
Arabic is estimated to date back 8000 to 20000 years by non-Muslim researchers, and had always been the first language in the entire lands of the Middle East, North and Central Africa. The images captured and URL links that provide the proofs are posted below in the article. This debate proves that Arabic was spoken by the masses during Jesus and before Jesus' days in Palestine and all of Arabia, and also in North and Central Africa, as this was their first language then, and it had always been the first language in these lands for 1000s of years. But because 7 Roman Emperors have thoroughly burnt all of the early Christians' writings, and because the Jews also burnt much of their Arabic writings when they got kicked out of the Holy Lands in modern-day Saudi Arabia, much of the texts that thoroughly demonstrate Islam and Prophet Muhammad being thoroughly foretold in the old Scriptures were lost. But yet despite all of that, we still have texts today and from the Bible itself and outside the Bible that tell about the coming of Prophet Muhammad and Islam as the Servant of GOD Almighty and the New Religion and Covenant of GOD Almighty, respectively:
How old is
the Arabic language? Arabic is the first language in the entire Middle East, North and Central Africa. The spoken Arabic language dates back to more than 8000 years ago, and I have no doubt that it even goes before that. And according to Islam, we believe it is the Language of Heaven and the first language that Adam, peace be upon him, spoke, because it is the Language of Heaven. The Arabic alphabets existed among the Arabs even during BC dates, and they were forever cemented by the Glorious Quran:
An Arabic Poem existed in 2,400 BC: The following is a poem written during 2400 BC in Arabic: http://www.m-a-arabia.com/site/11538.html:
My argument
summed up in a capsule:
I said below:
"Your
notion that Palestinians only spoke Greek and
Aramaic and Hebrew until 100 years before Islam, and
then changed 180 degrees and forgot all of these
languages and learned Arabic, which would then
explain to you why when Caliph Omar opened Palestine
after the Roman's defeat, they were 100% Arabic
speakers, THIS
NOTION IS QUITE EMPTY AND RIDICULOUS!! It
is almost an insult to the intelligence of the
reader."
Below, I
proved that Jesus preached in Arabic, and that
Arabic was a first language in the land of Palestine
at the time, just like it was and still is in the
entire Middle East, and North and Central Africa.
Arabic was spoken in these regions for thousands of
years in the BC times.
Please
visit: |
Note: The large emphasis and fonts below are mine.
The problem with this
approach is that early
Christian writings were
burned down by the wholesale by 7 Roman emperors:
Nero (54-68)
Domitian (81-96)
Marcus Aurelius (161-180)
Septimius Severus (193-211; up to a point)
Maximinius I Thrax (235-8; up to a point)
Trajanus Decius (249-251)
Valerian (253-260)
EARLY BELIEVERS WERE CALLED Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more"; ; Jesus called every believer a Muslim in Luke 6:40) Muslims . Even
Sam Shamoun seems to believe in this in his heart
while verbally denying it. Read this quote from him:
"In other words, even though
it may correct that the
term Mushlam later meant one who submits or referred
to a Muslim, this doesn’t tell us whether it
carried this meaning during the time of Christ,
especially if we take into consideration that
Mushlam is the translation of katertismenos, a word
which does not include submission as one of its
definitions."
Notice here Sam Shamoun's "refutation" to this is
his use of the Greek "source". But Jesus and the
people of Palestine
didn't speak Greek. In fact,
the disciples had to learn Greek through
TONGUES OF
FIRE that came down upon them. Otherwise, Greek was
a foreign language there to most of the people.
I have tried to cover this in my debate notes during
my last four debates. I have covered the
burning of
the overwhelming majority of the Believers' writings
from the seven Roman emperors, and I thoroughly
demonstrated how the Arabian Prophet, which the New
Covenant, will come according to the canonized Bible
itself. Please visit:
https://www.answering-christianity.com/sons_of_god_in_bible_and_quran_debate.htm
This article is messy, because it is only my brief
debate notes. The more organized section is here:
https://www.answering-christianity.com/predict.htm
NOTE THE
FOLLOWING:
1- The
canonized New Testament text of today was written 50
to 300 years after Jesus. It is not original, and it
is only little remnant from the original.
2- The
early believers were busy fighting the uphill battle
of proving that Jesus was the Messiah born from a
Virgin, and not a bastard born from a harlot.
Muhammad was probably the last on the list.
GOD Almighty Willing, me and Dr. David Wood will
have a debate on the NT Text and Islam's view of it
soon. The title of the debate is a bit lengthy, but
it includes this topic and more.
Also visit:
Matthew 7:22-23: GOD sent Jesus to be Christianity's lying spirit
Take care,
Osama Abdallah
Osama is a comedian. "Jesus and the people of palestine (sic) didn't speak greek". Greek was one of the official languages of the empire. Of course Jesus and the disciples spoke greek. And as for "palestine" it didn't exist in Jesus' day. Israel would not be renamed "palestine" until 135AD.
Andrew,
Who is the real comedian here? Jesus spoke Aramaic
and Hebrew to his people, and his sayings were
documented in Greek, not Aramaic nor Hebrew.
And you call me a comedian? And it seems that you
have a difficult time reading here. I know that
Palestine was controlled and ruled by the Romans,
who spoke both Greek and Latin. But this doesn't
mean that the people there spoke those languages. I
am a Palestinian, and my family roots go back to
countless centuries. WE DO NOT SPEAK GREEK THERE! Get
that into your head. Even the Palestinian Christians
don't speak Greek, nor Latin, nor Italian (a
developed language from Latin).
Palestine's first language is Arabic, and had always
been Arabic. The Jews' first language is Hebrew.
Many of them speak Arabic and many Arabs there speak
Hebrew. BUT
NEITHER IS FLUENT IN GREEK. Extreme
few speak Greek. But the average people there only
speak Arabic and Hebrew, from the Palestinians and
Israeli sides.
Take care,
Osama Abdallah
"And as for "palestine" it
didn't exist in Jesus' day. Israel would not be
renamed "palestine" until 135AD."
Even in the Bible, and before the Exodus of the Jews
from Egypt to Palestine, Palestine had always been
called the LAND
OF THE PHILISTINES.
Osama Abdallah
Another point worth
mentioning is Jesus most definitely spoke Arabic. I
know that in your biased Scriptures that were
doctored by men, this is not stated, but the very
fact that the people of Palestine spoke only Arabic
clearly proves that there are intentionally hidden
things about the early Christian Believers' history
that were suppressed.
What is this Greek language and these man-made Greek
gospels and books that were canonized? How come the
Arabic original writings weren't there. Didn't Jesus
speak with Samaritans (Gentiles)? WHO
DO YOU THINK WERE THEY? They
were Palestinians. And Palestine was opened by
Caliph Omar 600 years after Jesus when Islam came
and the Romans were defeated by the Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more"; ; Jesus called every believer a Muslim in Luke 6:40) Muslims and
Palestine was liberated.
**** GUESS WHAT? THEY
WERE 100% ARABIC SPEAKERS THERE.
You couldn't possibly sit here and tell me that the
nation of Palestine's first language was eliminated
and was replaced by Arabic before Islam came.
So after all, original Arabic Scriptures did
indeed exist with the Jews in Arabia. And they spoke clearly about Prophet Muhammad. And
they were all burned down after the Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more"; ; Jesus called every believer a Muslim in Luke 6:40) Muslims
crushed the Jews in Arabia after their betrayal of
the Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more";
; Jesus called every believer a Muslim in Luke 6:40) Muslims .
I just find the absence of
Arabic manuscripts from the early Christian writings
to be quite ridiculously odd. It's
all about Greek. But Greek was a foreign language. I
have no problem accepting Greek, but the evidence is
overwhelming against it. It is simply a foreign
language, and Jesus didn't speak it. Jesus
definitely spoke Arabic, but yet, this is
intentionally removed from your history.
I find this quite odd. Think about it. You do find MUSLIM
TO BE THE BELIEVERS' TITLE IN THE FEW REMNANTS THAT
YOU HAVE. Don't
you think that there is a whole a lot more to this
than what little you have?
Here is what the Glorious Quran Says about Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more"; ; Jesus called every believer a Muslim in Luke 6:40) Muslims
before Islam, and during Prophet Isa (Jesus) days:
[005:111]
"And behold! I inspired the
disciples to have faith in Me and Mine Apostle: they
said, 'We have faith, and do thou bear witness that
we bow to God as Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more"; ; Jesus called every believer a Muslim in Luke 6:40) Muslims '".
So the Glorious Quran confirms that Jesus' followers
were called Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more"; ; Jesus called every believer a Muslim in Luke 6:40) Muslims , and your sources also confirm
this.
Take care,
Osama Abdallah
Whether Jesus has spoken
Greek or not in real life , according to Quran Jesus
was absolutely speaking Greek language.
And He (Allah) will teach him [‘Isa] the Book and
Al-Hikmah and the Tawrat and theINJEEL.” [Al ‘Imran
3:48]
INJEEL is not arabic word, it
means nothing in arabic nor hebrew nor aramaic.
INJEEL straightly derives from GREEK
WORD εὐαγγέλιον euangélion
So if you're a muslim please stick to the Quran,
please !
More amazingly, we do find that the NT speaks about
Jesus returning as AN ARAB, not an Israelite:
www.answering-christianity.com/predict.htm
You also find MANY PASSAGES in the Bible's OT and NT
about t new Servant (Prophet/Messenger), who will
have the New Covenant with him, that he will come
from the Lands of Kedar (Central Arabia today, near
Mecca):
www.answering-christianity.com/predict.htm
And you do also read about the House of GOD Almighty
will be established IN THE DESERT of Kedar and its
Path will be called THE PATH OF HOLINESS in Isaiah
35 and 60.
So going
back to the MUSLAM (Muslim) title of the Believers point,
I find it quite odd that Arabic is not linked with
Jesus in your Scriptures, while there should've been
a whole lot more of it there.
Happy Thanks Giving to all of you! :)
Your humble brother,
Osama Abdallah
Osama says " I know that
Palestine was controlled and ruled by the Romans,".
You conflate Philistia with Palestine. They are two
different things. The philistines were red headed
seafarers from the Agean who settled in what is
todays Gaza. They had disappeared from history by
the time the Romans came on the scene. The etymology
of "palestine" is latin. When the Romans crushed the
second jewish revolt in 135AD they renamed Israel "palestine".
It was a calculated insult. As one historian has
said, it would have been the equivalent of William
the conqueror renaming England lesser France.
The Romans even minted coins "the fall of Judea".
Your assertion that in Jesus' day Israel was called
"palestine" is risible.
@HisBullAssh HamAndAss,
Injil was the name of the Revelations that were
given to Isa, peace be upon him. It is an Arabized
word for the Aramaic
"Awon-Galee-Yon". And Jesus spoke
Aramaic and Hebrew according to your sources. And I
add that he spoke Arabic as well, and preached
heavily in it as well, probably equal if not more
than he did with Aramaic and Hebrew, since the
Gentiles/Samaritans there were the Palestinians;
Arabic speakers.
Take care,
Osama Abdallah
@Osama:
You seem to be very sure and (think to be) educated
about many things. Yet, you show a lot of errors.
Just to pick one example. You say the Samaritans
were speaking arabic? Are you so sure about that? It
is Kind of funny, i just met a Samaritan 2 Weeks
ago!!! His own language was a Kind of samaritan
hebrew ... we read Parts of the samaritan Pentateuch
and it was very interessting to hear the differences
between the samaritan and jewish texts. I dont know
if he does speak arabic, but the samaritans have and
always had their own way of speaking hebrew, NOT
arabic.
For the start, take a look at this page: http://www.israelite-samaritans.com/
it might be interesting for you, because the
samaritans of today are trying to bring peace to
jews and palestinians and seem to get along very
well with both of them.
Are you seriously saying, that Jesus spoke ARABIC???
I am fine, to say his first language was Aramaic,
but Arabic is the one that is ridiculous. Greek in
those times was, what english is for most People
today. The language everyone could communicate in.
Wouldnt it make sense for God to choose that
language then? Especialy from a completely secular
Point of view - it is absurd to say, that People in
Israel didn't speak greek. It is even very disputable
how big the percentage is, of People that had greek
as their 1st language. The hellenistic period left a
mark in history, that changed the world and left
many People speaking greek around all the land that
Alexander conquered and his successors then kept
ruling. Some works of historians i have read give
estimates of above 50% even for Jerusalem, although
those numbers in Dispute. No one would argue, that
greek wasnt one, if not THE, language for
communication around the mediterrennean countries!
What i find very disturbing is your way of speaking
of some kind of liberation of the People of what you
call palestine. I know, that you, in your worldview,
think that they have been Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more"; ; Jesus called every believer a Muslim in Luke 6:40) Muslims all the way along
time. In ancient times those People in that Region,
that were not jews (samaritans included), were
mostly what you would call idolators. There is
absolutely no evidence to Support your theory of
Islam being pre-existend before Mohammed. Or please
show me any historical evidence, that has any credit
in modern scholarship! The only Thing you can
demonstrate is, that Mohammed borowed a lot from
other believes and cults and incorporated those into
what is called the Quran.
The entire Middle East and North and Central Africa all speak Arabic:
Arabic is a first language in their lands! See the images below.
@Herakleios,
Greek wasn't a global language like English is
today. It was very limited and very local to Greece
and to near lands from the Roman Empire. Europeans
are not Greek speakers!
And Palestinians
too didn't speak Greek. And North Africans didn't
speak Greek. And Egyptians didn't speak Greek. On
the contrary, The entire Middle East, and North and
Central Africa ARE ALL ARABIC SPEAKERS. Arabic is
their first language. This is Islam easily spread
throughout those lands. It was quite easy to
communicate with them.
Also again, when Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more"; ; Jesus called every believer a Muslim in Luke 6:40) Muslims opened Palestine
just a few
centuries after Jesus (after the Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more";
; Jesus called every believer a Muslim in Luke 6:40) Muslims defeated
the Romans), the people of Palestine all spoke
Arabic.
As to Samaritans, they were mostly Gentiles. Some
say they are a mix between Jews and Gentiles.
As to Jesus speaking Arabic, not only did he speak
Arabic, but I firmly believe that during Islam's
days,
there were actual ARABIC MANUSCRIPTS
IN ARABIA that spoke about the coming of the Divine
Religion of Islam. The Quran
clearly references them!! Muhammad would've easily
been proven a liar if they weren't there. And even
in today's canonized Bible, we find ample passages
that predict the coming of Islam from Arabia as GOD
Almighty's New Covenant. Unfortuantly also, the
mentioned Roman emperors above did burn a vast
number of early Believers' writings.
So once again,
there is a lot more to MUSHLAM in the
Bible.
Also Visit:
What is the definition of Messiah in the Quran?
Jesus was created from the Word of GOD and filled with the Holy Spirit.
Jesus' Original Name: Prophet Jesus' original name was Eesa, as this is also his Islamic name. Even in Latin, it is Iesu, and in Greek it is Iesus. There is also a great deal of evidence that Jesus spoke and preached in Arabic. Not only that, but Greek wasn't even that popular in Palestine. Islam's claims are very strongly supported. See proofs below. In Hebrew, Asa (pronounced as EESA) means doctor or healer: "Asa is a given name in several parts of the world. In English, the usual pronunciation is /ˈeɪsə/ or /ˈeɪzə/......Asa: a Hebrew name meaning healer and/or physician (Ase)." (Source) Jesus' miracles were almost entirely medical ones, i.e., healing the sick. So it makes perfect sense that people used to call the Messiah, Eesa (ˈeɪsə), because of his miraculous healing powers. The Jews pronounce the name as Eesa (ˈeɪsə):
Jesus healed thousands in the NT.
So he was
definitely a miraculous Eesa
عيسى. The disciples arguing about the Sabbath and other Laws. Jesus promised them that the Holy Spirit will take over the disciples' mouths and that there will be no arguments, confusions or riddles. Yet, the NT is marred with open arguments, vilifications (calling each other cursed by GOD "anathema", satanic, false, wrong). Where is Jesus' promise?? Totally a false promise! - He promised that the Holy Spirit will take over the disciples' mouths, guide them in all ways, and that it will be the Holy Spirit speaking, not them. - They were barking at each other like rabid dogs calling each other cursed, false, liar, satanic, your gospel is from satan!
Where was the promised Holy Spirit in their conflicting scriptures?
Remember: Yet, Paul admits that he speaks through a lying spirit (Romans 3:7 But if through my lie God's truth abounds to his glory, why am I still being condemned as a sinner?), while Jesus promised all of the disciples that the Holy Spirit will take over the disciples' mouths, and that it will not be them speaking, but the Holy Spirit. Yet, Paul says he was lying. Matthew 7:22-23: GOD sent Jesus to be Christianity's lying spirit
Dismal Spiritual Failures: Let us examine the following: Romans 3:23 ESV No man is sinless and faultless. The NT even says Jesus himself sinned via coveting the sins of the world. Paul then barfs the following gem:
1 Corinthians 2:15
How??? How can any flesh and blood sinner not be subjected to judgment? The world has seen how disastrous your pedophilic and corrupt priests, ministers and churches are, from sex abuse on children, theft, prostitution and so much more. Ironically also, Paul and the disciples themselves dismally failed this standard when they turned into rabid dogs in harsh judgments on each other; calling each other cursed, false, liar, satanic, your gospel is from satan! [1] Their books didn't even exist for the first 200 to 300 years, says most Bibles theologians. They are very highly corrupted. Also, Trinity is a lie from Hell. Why was GOD Almighty charitable (χάριτι) and forgiving to Jesus in Luke 2:52? There is also conflict regarding misogyny: Paul proves the book of Revelation is a forgery; a book of misogyny:
Bibles' manuscripts prove that Jesus was only sent for a limited Generation, as he himself stated, and his final return from the east (Matthew 24:25-27) is a new Covenant from Arabia and Islam; also false christs and prophets during and after Jesus [1] [2] at the time. Which book were the people of the Book reciting (فسأل الذين يقرؤون الكتاب) during Prophet Muhammad's days according to the Glorious Quran 10:94?
Edward Dalcour says that Jesus would be insufficient if Paul was proven to be false:
Does Noble Verse 9:31 say that Allah and Jesus are two equal Lords? Also, thorough refutation to توحيد الربوبية (tawheed alruboobiyyah, or Oneness of Lordship between Jesus and Allah) concept by the polytheist trinitarian pagans.
***** Bibles' OT and NT: Spirits that GOD Almighty sends down including lying ones in the Bibles. Jesus in several passages was Commanded by GOD to become one to forge falseianity (christianity) because of the ample blasphemies of the Jews. Jesus replaced Satan: (Ezekiel 28:13-19). Notice the language of how Satan was: 1. "You were perfect from the day you were created". Jesus was also created from the Word of GOD. He was all of these and more before arrogance, pride, stubbornness and blasphemies caused Satan to fall from Grace. Jesus then became the substitute, i.e., the Perfect", "Glorious", "the chosen one", the "Anointed", "ruler over earth" and ruler over the "Holy Mount" chosen one of GOD Almighty. Jesus also said the direction of the Prayer towards Jerusalem will be no more (Psalm 138:2, John 4:21, Matthew 21:43, Isaiah 35, Isaiah 60, Genesis 25:12-13). It will be replaced with the Qibla (direction) to Mecca and the Holy Path to Mecca. Only Islam is the Divine Truth from Allah Almighty. Christianity is pagan. Even Christmas is an ancient Roman pagan holiday (video clip) according to the Christian theologians themselves:
See also 24 other Thrones and Messiahs besides Jesus (Revelations 4 & 5).
Eid Al-Adha: Ishmael or Isaac? GOD's peace be upon them both. Who was the son to be sacrificed? Bibles and Quran agree it was Ishmael.
Satan & Peter VS. Paul: 2 Corinthians 12:7-11. Paul literally put Peter and Satan in one team.
Sam Shamoun also exposes the ample holy group sex that occurs in his circle:
Paul ordered the execution (actual killing) of some sinners.Paul ate his vomit.
Bibles' manuscripts prove that Jesus was only sent for a limited Generation, as he himself stated, and his final return from the east (Matthew 24:25-27) is a new Covenant from Arabia and Islam; also false christs and prophets during and after Jesus [1] [2] at the time. (Sam Shamoun declares gambling is allowed in Christianity) Jesus amputated his unholy testicles to remain holy. If his body was holy, were his testicles cursed and unholy, especially that he commanded to maim your sinful body parts? They were not part of the Creator of the Universe's body?? Really??? Paul said maimed flesh gets sent to satan.
Why did Jesus amputate his own (NT calls them satanic flesh) testicles?
?
Did early Christians preach Prophet Muhammad in Rome? Did the early believers preach Prophet Muhammad in Corinth, Antioch, Rome and all other places? Prophet Jesus, peace be upon him, was the Jews' Messiah and final Prophet. In both the Glorious Quran and the Dead Sea Scrolls, Ahmed was prophesied to come. Ahmed in the Quran is Prophet Muhammad's prophetic name. Also, see below the Dead Sea Scroll image. The New Testament too predicts the coming of three:
1.
Elijah.
John
1:19-21
and
John
7:40-44.
Click on
the
images
to
expand:
Roman massacres:
1. Nero
(54-68)
Read all the
details with references
here. Also visit: How big was the first New Testament?
What we have
today from "gospels" and "New Testament" were
written
100 years to 300 years after Jesus'
departure from this earth. So, the current
writings that we have are not original writings.
Also, to appease the Roman Empire's 3-headed
pagan religion and practices, the pagan 3-headed
trinity was invented [1]
[2]
[3]
[4]
[5].
Many lies had been fabricated after the original
writings were all lost. The Jews and
Christians of Arabia, however, did have writings
that predicted the coming of Prophet Muhammad.
These were some of the original texts that
survived. The early believers were expecting an Arabian Prophet. The OT thoroughly talks about him and his new Covenant coming from Kedar in Arabia, and the NT talks about him coming after the Messiah: Why wasn't Prophet Muhammad preached by the early Christians in Jerusalem, Arabia, Africa and Europe? Early cities like Antioch, Corinth, Rome and others were never taught the coming of Prophet Muhammad. Doesn't this prove that Islam is false? But he was preached! From Why Jews settled in Arabia section:
Jesus also preached in Arabic: See the clear proofs in the following:
Prophet "AHMAD" is found in the
Dead Sea Scrolls: |
Take care,
Osama Abdallah
I have always wondered when Jesus and Pontius Pilate met what language they communicated in - Aramaic, Hebrew or Greek?
@Osama:
Thanks for your Reply. Sadly you didn't give me any
sources for your Claims.
I study history and everything i have ever read
about this Topic - languades around the
mediterrenean - stands oppisite to what you are
saying.
Could you please give sources to your claims? You do
realise, that the Things you are saying are very
much against anything the majority (if not all) of
the scholars today are saying. So any sources from
your side would be very helpful.
But first things first:
You do realise, that i spoke to a Samaritan myself?
Those People still live today. You Claim, that they
spoke arabic. Yet their writings are not in arabic,
but in a Special samaritan-hebrew. They still posess
many ancient writings and still speak their own
language today. The man i spoke with can trace his
Family back many thousands of years and they never
left, what they call, the holy land. So, could you
please give me any historical sources, that would
Support your Claim, that the samaritan People spoke
arabic as their main language (what you did at least
twice in the Texts above), or take back you Claim
and say that you were wrong about this?
Btw. i take back one Thing: i do think the man
speaks arabic, but it is not his first language.
Second: You do know about koine greek? Even a short
visit to Wikipedia (although i dont take it as a
real reliable source for history) will give you the
following:
"... was the common supra-regional form of Greek
spoken and written during Hellenistic and Roman
antiquity. It developed through the spread of Greek
following the conquests of Alexander the Great in
the 4th century BC, and served as the common lingua
franca of much of the Mediterranean region and the
Middle East during the following centuries."
As i said, Wikipedia is not a very good source, but
it is stating the same, as any book you will read
about this Topic. So, where are your sources about
greek being only a very local language?
Could you answer me the following questions: Why did
the jews translate their Texts into greek - the
septuagint. Shouldnt they have translated it into
arabic, if all People in that Region spoke arabic?
What was arabic like in the 1st Century AD? As far
as my knolage goes, the "classical arabic" developed
just in the time, the quran was written down. There
are older roots for arabic and some can be traced
back to the first or even 2nd millenium BC, but not
in the form, of what you would call arabic today.
You are right, that some People spoke arabic, but it
was not such a widespread language until the islamic
conquest. I refer you to Wikipedia to make things
easy, but i can happily give you further sources for
that.
In the 1st centruy AD, all around the Mediterranean,
Latin and especially Greek where the most common
languages - not the first language everyone spoke,
but just like english is today. I can give you a lot
of different sources, although most of them, that i
have at my home right now, are in german. So if you
want any sources in english, i will gladly Research
some english versions for you.
Do you have ANY source, that would Support your
Claim, that Jesus spoke arabic? Do you have ANY
source, to Support your Claim, that arabic was a
very common spoken language in Israel in that time?
And what would be very interesting: Do you have any
source that would Support your Claim, that there
were some Kind of muslim palestinians in Jesus
times? There are None. You just make These Things
up!
One more Thing:
"The entire Middle East, and North and Central
Africa ARE ALL ARABIC SPEAKERS. Arabic is their
first language. This is why Islam easily spread
throughout those lands. It was quite easy to
communicate with them."
Yes they ARE .. but the havent always been. Islam
didn't spread so fast, because the People all spoke
arabic. Islam spread so fast, because of conquest
and conversion by sword.
Before the ilamic conquest the People of palestine
spoke Greek, Aramaic, Syriac and a few arabic,
although that arabic was a dialect of its own and
most propably not like the arabic in the quran.
http://legacy.fordham.edu/halsall/med/mango.asp
What i find very amusing - and the samaritan i spoke
to said the same: Did you take a look at the DNA
researches of the past years? It Shows, that Jews,
Samaritans and Palestinians are all from the same
blood.
"The results match historical accounts that Moslem
Arabs are descended from Christians and Jews who
lived in the southern Levant, a region that includes
Israel and the Sinai. "
"found that the Y chromosome in Middle Eastern Arabs
was almost indistinguishable from that of Jews."
http://www.ibric.org/science/97now/00_10now/001030a.html
So why the hatred? Maybe Islam divided what where
Brothers once?
Osama Abdallah said...
The spoken Arabic language
dates back to more than 8000 years ago, and I have
no doubt that it even goes before that. And
according to Islam, we believe it is the Language of
Heaven and the first language that Adam, peace be
upon him, spoke, because it is the Language of
Heaven.
The Arabic alphabets existed among the Arabs even
during BC dates, and they were forever cemented by
the Glorious Quran. Visit the following links:
Book Information:
Before the Dawn: Recovering the Lost History
of Our Ancestors
By Nicholas Wade
And here is a poem written during 2400 BC in Arabic:
http://www.m-a-arabia.com/site/11538.html
Your notion that Palestinians
only spoke Greek and Aramaic and Hebrew until 100
years before Islam, and then changed 180 degrees and
forgot all of these languages and learned Arabic,
which would then explain to you why when Caliph Omar
opened Palestine after the Roman's defeat, they were
100% Arabic speakers, THIS
NOTION IS QUITE EMPTY AND RIDICULOUS!! It
is almost an insult to the intelligence of the
reader.
If indeed Greek and/or Aramaic and/or Hebrew were
our (the Palestinians) first language, then Islam
would not have been able to eliminate any of them!
After all, the Iranians are still not Arabic
speakers today. The Turks are not also Arabic
speakers today, and the Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more"; ; Jesus called every believer a Muslim in Luke 6:40) Muslims above them from
Albania and Kosova and Bosnia are also not Arabic
speakers today.
WHY ONLY THE
PALESTINIANS HAVE TO DUMP THEIR GREEK LANGUAGE AND
REPLACE IT WITH ARABIC ALL WITHIN 100 YEARS?? You
are not making any sense!
The bias and hate towards Islam and Arabic has
caused for much lies to be invented against Arabic
to suppress Arabic. It remains 100% clear that:
1- Jesus spoke Arabic.
2- Jesus lived among many Arabic speakers.
3- Greek was not Palestine's first language.
4- Greek was and had always been a foreign language
there.
5- Greek was never a global language, nor even
dominant in the near by lands of the Roman empire,
such as in modern-day Italy and Turkey. These
are non-Greek speaking lands that neighbor Greece
from the east and the west.
6- Arabic had always existed in Arabia.
Furthermore, the Bible talks about three Babylons:
1- Assyria's Babylon.
2- The Virgin Daughter of Babylon (Arabia).
3- The future Babylon or Mystery Babylon.
Assyria's Babylon had been replaced with Islam
today. And the Bible speaks greatly about
demolishing the idols of the Virgin Daughter of
Babylon and bringing the Truth and Light to it. And
the reason why it was called VIRGIN
DAUGHTER OF BABYLON WAS BECAUSE IT HAD NO DIVINE
RELIGION SENT TO IT YET. Islam
came and fulfilled this.
The Bible also speaks about the New Covenant coming
from the lands of Kedar, and the House of GOD
Almighty will be established there, and the path of
this House will be called
"THE PATH OF
HOLINESS". You can read the ample
Biblical verses in the links that I already gave
above.
As to Injil, even if it exist in Greek, it would've
been taken from Aramic or Hebrew or even Arabic,
because these were the languages of Palestine at
that time.
As to what language Pilate and Jesus spoke, I am not
sure as a Muslim if this even took place, but
assuming that it did, it wouldn't matter if Jesus
spoke in Greek with Pilate, because the language
of the colonizer is one thing, and the language that
the masses spoke in the land is another thing.
Also visit:
Matthew 7:22-23: GOD sent Jesus to be Christianity's lying spirit
Take care,
Osama Abdallah
Dear Osama,
Are you sure that Greek language and culture weren't
present in the ancient Israel? Israel was under
Seleucid Rule for years. The Seleucid rulers held
Greek customs and language prime in all their
colonies and the Maccabean revolt broke out in
response to imposing Greek culture on Jews by force.
The book of Maccabeus in the Apocrypha gives us more
information on the Jewish history in the few
Centuries before the birth of our Lord. Besides
Hellenistic thought had great impact on Jewish
philosophy as well.
Secondly, the Jewish diaspora in Greece used to come
to Jerusalem for worship and religious instruction,
Paul was one of them, and we read about the Greeks
who came to meet Jesus in the Gospel(they met
Andrew, our Lord's disciple first). If you would
remember, the inscription "Jesus of Nazareth, King
of Jews" was written in Hebrew, Latin and Greek
above our Lord's Cross.(This statement clearly
reflected the contempt for Jews and a warning to all
Jews who read it) If Pilate just meant write it in
all languages which were there in the land and
around it, he could have written it in Arabic,
Persian, Sanskrit and what not.
Lastly, first century Palestine was a part of the
Roman Empire more specifically eastern part of the
Roman Empire and Greek was the official language of
the eastern Roman Empire.
Coming to the part of Arabic Manuscripts, as you
know that the Arabic language was written in
Nabothean Script earlier; the language's script
developed completely towards the end of AD 6th
century, so I frankly doubt if Arabic manuscripts
were present in Israel back then. Besides, Jesus was
a Jew and why should he speak the language of the
Ishmaelites, with whom Jews weren't in good terms.
Palestine, Northern Africa etc, never spoke Arabic
before the Islamic invasion of those lands.
I pray that Jesus will reveal himself to you,
because Jesus said "No one can come to me unless the
Father who sent me draws them..."(John 6:44).
Prayers and Regards,
Dennis
God loves you Osama:).
The passages which you quoted, wouldn't mean the the
same if one read them in the context of the entire
book. Besides, they are not a part of Torah, Sabur
or Injil(which are the inspired books according to
Koran), they form the part of Nabiyeem or Prophets.
Taking a text out of its context makes it a pretext,
and you can make the Holy Bible say anything you
want to, if you would pick verses from here and
there and do some verbal acrobatics. I frankly doubt
if even Benjamin Keldani would have thought of them
in that manner unless he wanted to make them refer
to the prophet of Islam.
Praying that God would speak to you,
Prayers and Regards,
Dennis
I've never posted anything
here before but do visit this website, watch
debates, and occasionally read the comments. I try
to avoid Osama's comments as I find him rude and
hateful. It is like he just throws up a bunch of
fables and Muslim fairy tales hoping something will
stick. Forget that his argument from the very
beginning is ridiculous at best- his problem is that
he doesn't know Jesus. If he truly knew Jesus, he
would think it foolish to argue about if he spoke
Greek or not. Jesus is the Creator of all things and
nothing was created without Him. Jesus knows the
hearts of men. Jesus healed the blind, lame, sick,
raised the dead, forgave sin, died on the cross as a
random for all people and rose from the dead. That
is just to name a few of His accomplishments and
attributes. Jesus claimed to be God and proved it.
Can God speak Greek- of course! That is a ridiculous
question. Christians believe Jesus to be God in
flesh so can He speak Greek- absolutely! I guess
since the Muslim god can only understand Arabic that
is why Osama is so bent at trying to say Jesus spoke
Arabic. So as an olive branch to Osama, I agree that
Jesus, my Lord and God can also speak and understand
Arabic- he is not limited by any language or
anything or anyone for that matter!
Dear Osama
The word Evangelion was not used by Jews neither
Arabs nor Christians for the first time, it was used
by Romans to indicate the ascension of a new Emperor
or the victory of the Roman army in the battle. This
word was borrowed by Christians to denote the
triumph over sin, and the coming of the Kingdom of
God. Remember, one of the allegations against
Christians during the persecution in the first
centuries was that they claim to be the subjects of
a new king named Jesus and not Caesar. It is not
fair to fight over the etymology of the word telling
that it came from the 'arabicised' for of an Aramaic
word.
Besides, the word muslim (Arabic: مسلم, IPA: [ˈmʊslɪm];
English /ˈmʌzlɨm/, /ˈmʊzlɨm/, /ˈmʊslɨm/ or moslem /ˈmɒzləm/,
/ˈmɒsləm/[13]) is the participle of the same verb of
which islām is the infinitive, based on the
triliteral S-L-M "to be whole, intact". I remember
reading somewhere that the above S-L-M could mean
peace (salaam)as well. It is childish to argue that
early Christians ever referred to themselves as
Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more"; ; Jesus called every believer a Muslim in Luke 6:40) Muslims .
We read in Acts 11:26, that the followers of the way
were called Christians in Antioch, and this occurred
during the time of apostles and the people who lived
during this period could have easily questioned Luke
when he wrote them down in Acts of the Apostles
around AD 62.
Besides,around AD 116, Tacitus(a roman historian and
senator) writes: "Nero fastened the guilt and
inflicted the most exquisite tortures on a class
hated for their abominations,called Christians by
the populace. Christus, from whom the name had its
origin, suffered the extreme penalty.....
Shall I now say Text History and Reason(THR) points
to the fact that Early Christians never called
themselves Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more"; ; Jesus called every believer a Muslim in Luke 6:40) Muslims ?
Praying that God reveal the truth about his only
begotten son to you,
Love and Regards,
Dennis
Acts 1:8 mentions the
disciples being witnesses in Jerusalem. Then Judea
and Samaria. Then to the ends of the earth.
Hmm. No Palestine there. I wonder why?
@Osama said {The spoken
Arabic language dates back to
more than 8000 years ago. I have no doubt that it
even goes before that. And according to Islam, we
believe it
is the Language of Heaven and the first language
that Adam, peace be upon him, spoke, because it is
the Language of Heaven.}
Arabic language had already existed 8000 yrs ago???
This Osama guy is living in delusion and denial
toward reality.
Osama said {And here is a poem written during 2400
BC in Arabic:http://www.m-a-arabia.com/site/11538.html}
LOL,
This assumption of 'arabic language had existed at
time of Christ and even way before' is just
absolutely pure silliness, even serious muslim
intellectuals will also reject this HOAX in order to
keep their dignity intact.
this Osama-guy will just receive any hoax and stupid
material floating around out there and claiming it
as the truth without even bother to use his mind to
digest it first whether it's truly valid or not.
@Andrew,
Even before the Exodus, the land had always been
called the land of the Philistines.
Even in
Arabic, it is called Filasteen. I
don't know why English chose to begin the word with
a "P". So Palestine had always been called Filasteen.
The Judea and Samaria names came later, and they are
names for regions. But the grand name is Palestine.
I'll respond to the other brothers later on tonight
or tomorrow, GOD Almighty Willing.
Also visit:
Matthew 7:22-23: GOD sent Jesus to be Christianity's lying spirit
Take care,
Osama Abdallah
Really excellent article,
Jonathan. However I would like to point out one
major oversight. You give five "historiographical
reasons for thinking that Paul’s teaching was
approved by the original disciples of Jesus". But
you miss, perhaps the most persuasive: 2 Peter
3:15-16. The following is from the NIV translation.
"Bear in mind that our Lord’s patience means
salvation, just as our dear brother Paul also wrote
you with the wisdom that God gave him. He writes the
same way in all his letters, speaking in them of
these matters. His letters contain some things that
are hard to understand, which ignorant and unstable
people distort, as they do the other Scriptures, to
their own destruction."
Peter himself not only endorses Paul's writings, but
refers to them as "Scriptures" (i.e., the words of
God, Himself). You can't get more definitive than
that.
Dear Osama,
(at least read the 2nd part of this text and Show me
with historical sources, that it wasnt that way)
when i click on the first link i get redirected to
"before the dawn" by Nicholas Wade. Are you sure
that link is correct? I havent read the book, but i
read the summary and dont think there is something
about 8000 year old arabic in it. Especialy i think,
that this book goes much agains the Story of Adam -
or did Adam evolve from Apes and was not created by
god and Supports Evolution. As far as i have
understood you in previous Posts from you, Evolution
is not exactly what you would Support? God has no
place in it!
The second link is just a text - do you have a
scientific work, Dating that text to 2500bc? I know
many text, that seem to be older, than they are.
Have you ever heard of the Nibelungen in Germany? It
is a tale, that most propably was written down way
later, than the Events it is describing.
About the palestinians speaking only arabic. Give me
please any source, or historical work that Supports
that Claim. I never said, that they forgot all
languages instantly and learned arabic instead. It
was a process and i think many still could speak
greek and other languages, as they still can today.
Many palistineans speak Hebrew today and english and
so on.
I think you are making one big mistake and you think
the word "palistineans" would always mean the same.
People living in Palestine have not always been the
same and many Things changed over time. The People
that call themselves palestinians today and who want
the palestinian state are muslim People. Although
there are Christian palestinians who propably
wouldnt prefer living in a muslim Country and might
be happy living in modern Israel.
If you say that Palestinians are per Definition
People with arabic roots - you still cannot say,
that they all spoke arabic, although this Definition
would make more sense.
Palestinians in Roman times where People living in
the "Provincia Syria Palaestina". Not distinction
made. And that is, what i refer to, when speaking of
palestinians in Roman times. It was a mix of many
People with many languages, arabic being a very
small minority.
The arabic language changed a lot over time and it
is very hard to find any written sources before the
rise of Islam. Saying it is 8000 years old, is just
saying something. I dont say arabic wasnt spoken in
some kind of form, but the arabic of the quran
developed with the rise of Islam. Give me any proof,
showing otheriwse! I say that the modern arabic is
different from the arabic the People spoke 1000
years ago and much more different of the arabic the
People spoke 2000 years ago. I dont say, that arabic
"came into existence" with the quran. Arabic isnt
even a muslim language. Many christians and jews
spoke arabic Long before Mohammed. The Thing is - it
wasnt the modern arabic and not the arabic of the
quran.
What you get confused about is, that you think the
People in modern israel were all of arab origin and
spoke arabic. That is just false. Israel has always
been a mix of many People and in the 1st century,
Greek and Latin were the languages everyone could
use to communicate. I never said, that greek was the
1st language of everybody. It was like english
today, most People could use it to speak with other
People. Many People in that Region did speak greek
as their 1st language though ... Alexander the great
build many cities and settled greek People there.
Why should they stop speaking greek?
(@osama: the part for you to
answer to is at the bottom)
The Population of syria and Israel changed a lot
after the islamic conquest. It wasnt a Liberation of
arabic speaking People. Look at Eqypt for example or
other countries today, how christians are killed and
persecuted and have to flee or die. Do you think it
is surprising, that after a few decades the muslim,
arabic speaking People are in the majority?
You really get confused about the languages. You
say: "Greek was never a global language, nor even
dominant in the near by lands of the Roman empire,
such as in modern-day Italy and Turkey. These are
non-Greek speaking lands that neighbor Greece from
the east and the west."
Yet it doesnt say anything about greek not being a
language spoken by many People - not as their first
language. With your reasoning one could say, that
english is not a dominant language in the world,
because in Germany People still speak german and
that is a Country Close to England. Yet every child
learns english at School!
By the way ... maybe you should take a look at the
history of Turkey. It was greek in large parts and
especialy the west coast was very greek! Other parts
were inhabitet by non-greek People, but still they
could speak greek. The capital of turkey had been
the capital of the east-roman empire, with greek
being the Major language besides Latin. You see, how
conquest can Change Things? Now most People speak
Turkish in Istanbul ... go back in time and they
spoke greek in constantinopel. The same thing
happened in Israel and most arabic speaking
countries today. They got conquered and over time,
arabic got the dominant language and muslim People
had a much easier life and Islam became the majority
Religion in those countries.
Dear
brother Herakleios,
In regards to links that demonstrate to you that
Arabic dates back to thousands and thousands of
years back, I could give you many of them and
especially ones in Arabic. And you would of course
reject them. But I've given you the best proof and
you haven't really answered it. You kept beating the
bush around it. All
of Arabia from the North to the South, and all of
North and Central Africa were all Arabic speakers when
Islam came. Islam is not that far off in time from
Christianity. In the relative time of history, it
only came a few centuries after Christianity. SO
THERE WAS NO TIME AT ALL FOR THE ARABS TO CHANGE
THEIR GREEK LANGUAGE TO ARABIC. And what makes your
argument weaker and weaker is that these lands were
under the Romans' control. So Greek should've been
deeply rooted in them. But opposite to that, we find
Greek almost non-existent there. So with this my
brother, it is more than abundantly clear that:
1-
********
Jesus existed among Arabic speakers
and other non-Arabic speakers.
2-
Jesus preached in Arabic and in other
languages.
3- The Arabic manuscripts of Palestine and Arabia
were burned by the 7 Roman emperors who burned all
of the Christian writings that they could get their
hands on.
As to Greek and how popular it was, sure it was in
every land that the Romans conquered, but it was
hardly the first-tongue or mother-tongue language of
the nations that were conquered. You can show
example after example of how the ruling authority
were Greek speakers, but non of this really means
anything. It remains unrefuted that Arabs did indeed
speak Arabic throughout THE ENTIRE MIDDLE EAST and
North and Central Africa.
Have a blessed day.
Also visit:
Matthew 7:22-23: GOD sent Jesus to be Christianity's lying spirit
Take care,
Osama Abdallah
@Osama
Ah, no. Arabic was mainly spoken on the Arabian
peninsula until the Islamic conquests. The native
language of the speakers in the area of Jesus'
ministry was Aramaic. Almost everyone in the
Mediterranean region spoke Koine Greek. It was the
common language used for trade among speakers whose
first language was something else (and also native
speakers of Greek). The idea that Jesus was "among
Arabic speakers" is pure fantasy. Most likely, Jesus
or the Apostles did not even know Arabic and
virtually no one in the entire Mediterranean region
was an Arab. That happened with Islamic conquests.
You're real doing a terrible job as an apologist for
Islam. When you make these outrageously ignorant
statements it just lowers your credibility to the
point that is difficult to take seriously anything
you say. BTW, I'm curious if you also maintain that
the Temple Mount is not the site of the Second
Jewish Temple that was, by every credible historical
account, destroyed by the Romans in 70 AD. Because
I've heard a lot of Islamists try to deny the
historical Jewish presence in Jerusalem, the
historical validity of the site of the Temple Mount,
and even that Jerusalem was a city of Jews going
back to King David. Are you also one of these
people?
@Osama Abdallah
Hey, I am quite glad that you have chosen to stand
for your position! However I must inform you that
you are simply wrong. Arabic could not be 8000 years
old, as even secular sources say humans are not much
more than 10,000 years old. As to your refusal to
understand the difference between a trade language
and a primary language, use this as an example: All
global trade is done in U.S. Dollars, whether the
local currency is U.S. Dollars or French Euros or
Chinese Yen. Similarly all trade in the
Mediterranean was done in a rough Greek that
everyone could learn. It was useful because many
already spoke it due to Greek conquests in the area
long past. There is simply no evidence for Arabic
being a particularly common language at that time in
that area. This unfortunately undermines your
earlier points. Frankly Jesus was not a Muslim and
texts from shortly after the time of writing show
that there is simply not enough time for the New
Testament to have been corrupted to the point of His
original teachings having been Islamic. The
teachings we see simply contradict the Quran too
much.
God's Grace follow you and may the Spirit act on
your heart.
@Geoff,
And with your vast knowledge, when did the people of
the entire northern Arabian region begin to speak
Arabic? And when did they
****
SO ABRUPTLY
lost Greek or Aramaic or whatever language you
choose?
Give me an exact year. Don't
just give me empty anti-Arabs and anti-Islam
assertions.
Let's see if you can figure out on your own just how
ridiculous your false teachings were regarding the
Arabic language in the Middle Eastern region. And
while you're at it, how come the Assyrians in Iraq
and Syria and Iran and Turkey still speak Aramaic?
And how come the Kurds in those regions also still
speak Kurdish? How come they never abruptly loose
their Aramaic and Kurdish? And when did they, the
Assyrians, so abruptly loose their Greek? And the
Kurds too. Did not your church teach you that they
never really spoke Greek? Or did they only teach you
that it was the Arabs who lost their Greek?
Please name me the dates. Don't just give me empty
assertions. You
have words like MUSLIM (MUSHLEM) that even your
Assyrian and Greek scholars don't know where it came
from! So
your sources are corrupt and lacking. Don't fight
the Truth, because you would be then fighting GOD
and joining satan. Let the Truth be.
Take care,
Osama Abdallah
@Geoff,
And who was the Canaanite woman in Matthew-1521-28?
Did Jesus say that it was the GREEKS who were the
Jews' dogs? Or was it the Assyrians after all who
were the Jews' dogs? Or was it the Arab pagans who
lived in Palestine, i.e., the Palestinians? And what
language did she speak? Your Scriptures recorded
this in Greek, but Greek is a mere translation. Even
your scholars admit to this. So Jesus had spoken
another language with her. Why
couldn't that language be Arabic according to you? It's
not like we're talking about England here!
We're talking about Arabia, a region that is most
dominated by Arabic speaking people, even those who
are not Arabs do speak Arabic.
And going back to the "dogs" point, when the woman
believed, what did Jesus say to her? We are
believers in Isa (Jesus), peace be upon him. And we
spoke and do speak Arabic. Arabic was there and had
always been there.
Take care,
Osama Abdallah
@Osama: Please give me the
many links - english ones prefered.
Either my english is so bad, or you dont get what i
want to say. I never said, that arabic was not
spoken in Jesus time, but it was concentrated on the
Arabia Region. You make very bold Claims, when you
say taht ALL!! of North and Central Africa were
speaking Arabic. That Claim is just not true. Many
languages and dialects were spoken in those lands.
The parts of North Africa bordering the
mediterrenean were almost all Roman provinces in
some time. Carthago in the earlier times was
definitely NOT speaking arabic and the People living
there after didn't speak arabic too! Until the 6th
century even a lot of germanic speaking People came
to North africa - the Vandals. You think they spoke
arabic?
Another Point is .. what IS arabic? Is it the
language of the quran, or do you include the
language(s) it developed from. Or are you saying,
that arabic has always been the same?
You assume that all of North
and central africa was populated by Arabs ... and
that is not true. They might have been a minority
and in some parts a majority - but many, many other
People lived there too. Just as in Israel.
The most important Point still will be - what do you
define as arabic. Do you hold the islamic view of
the golden Version of the quran in heaven? So how is
it, that Linguists can proof, that arabic developed
over time and was much different over the centuries.
Even after Mohammed it still changed a lot!
"You
assume that all of North and central africa was
populated by Arabs"
Not Arabs, but Arabic speaking people. An Arabic
speaker may not necessarily be an Arab.
"@Osama: Please give me the many links - english
ones prefered.
Either my english is so bad, or you dont get what i
want to say. I never said, that arabic was not
spoken in Jesus time, but it was concentrated on the
Arabia Region."
And based on the overwhelming evidence that I
gave you regarding
MANY OF the people of Palestine were
not only Arabic speakers, BUT
EVEN MOST OF THEM WERE ARABIC SPEAKERS.
In regards to the links, here are some. I want the
reader to see here that Arabic is now suddenly a
language that DID EXIST DURING CHRIST'S TIME, but
now they say yeah but it didn't exist in Palestine,
despite the fact that the ENTIRE NORTHERN ARABIAN
REGION ALL SPEAK ARABIC, not just Palestine. Notice
that it was claimed that Arabic didn't come until
400 or so years after Christ. But now, it existed
during his time :). Anyway, here are the links:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=wkgqaEr-fQE
(this is by an Arabian professor)
http://www.alghad.com/prints/777807-%D9%84%D8%BA%D9%88%D9%8A%D9%88%D9%86-%D8%A7%D9%84%D8%B9%D8%B1%D8%A8%D9%8A%D8%A9-%D8%A3%D8%B5%D9%84-%D8%A7%D9%84%D9%84%D8%BA%D8%A7%D8%AA?s=508957ea7a511e065bd4ee6d03d6880e
https://www.google.com/search?q=%D8%A7%D9%84%D9%84%D8%BA%D8%A9+%D8%A7%D9%84%D8%B9%D8%B1%D8%A8%D9%8A%D8%A9+%D9%85%D9%86+%D9%82%D8%A8%D9%84+%D8%A3%D9%84%D8%A7%D9%81+%D8%A7%D9%84%D8%B3%D9%86%D9%8A%D9%86
How about we just the Truth be! Let's not fight it.
This age that we exist in is all messed up and is
the age of the dajjal and the liars (not claiming
anyone here is). So let's not embrace the claims of
the racist and bigoted liars who try to rewrite
history and bury the Truth.
Also visit:
Matthew 7:22-23: GOD sent Jesus to be Christianity's lying spirit
Take care,
Osama Abdallah
More scientific links
regarding the Arabic language dating 1000s and 1000s
of years back:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ZsZypF8coIo
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=EsknIRtmSxQ
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=9IThGjQ4lsE
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=HQZsqCuDVHo
Take care,
Osama Abdallah
@Osama Abdallah
Here's a quote from your original comment.
"Notice here Sam Shamoun's "refutation" to this is
his use of the Greek "source". But Jesus and the
people of Palestine didn't speak Greek!!"
This is what we were overall dealing with. Jesus
spoke Greek. Most of the NT is in Greek. The entire
Mediterranean spoke Greek as a trade language, so
most would understand it. There is no evidence of
Arabic being a common enough language that Jesus
would speak it to be clearly understood! Your
premise is flawed and the rest of your arguments
fall because of it.
@Osama Abdallah
Your full quote:
"Notice here Sam Shamoun's "refutation" to this is
his use of the Greek "source". But Jesus and the
people of Palestine didn't speak Greek!! In fact,
the disciples had to learn Greek through TOUNGUES OF
FIRE that came down upon them. Otherwise, Greek was
a foreign language there to most of the people."
"There
is no evidence of Arabic being a common enough
language that Jesus would speak it to be clearly
understood!"
You have no evidence for anything, my
dear. Just
repeating the falsehood that you were raised with,
and that is GOD Almighty hates Arabs, and Arabic
didn't even exist during Jesus' times. And many keep
parroting "GOD loved Jacob and GOD hated Essau!". As
if this has ANYTHING TO DO with Islam and the
Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more"; ; Jesus called every believer a Muslim in Luke 6:40) Muslims and the language of Arabic.
As to Greek, it was the language of the colonizers
in Palestine. But it was never the native language
there. Heck, we don't even know the Greek Alphabets
in the ENTIRE MIDDLE EAST! Even the Christian Arabs
don't speak Greek, except for those who received
specialized education on it.
And how on earth did you come up with Arabic wasn't
around there?? Arabs were very popular for their
caravans travels and tradings. Plus the SHAM area
(Syria, Lebanon, Palestine and Jordan, and the Iraq
area had always been considered Arab lands.
And this is
why the people there
SIDED WITH THE CENTRAL ARABS against
the Persians and the Romans.
Learn and remove the ignorance my brother. We live
in the age of liars and lies. Don't let the liars
rewrite history and feed lies into your brain.
Take care,
Osama Abdallah
It was
the Northern Arabs who carried most of the brunt of
fighting both the Romans and Persians, and it was
the Northern Arabs who crushed both of them, and it
was the Northern Arabs who crushed the crusaders and
almost killed Richard lionheart in the battle, and
it was the Northern Arabs' two capitals, Damascus
and Baghdad that were the capitals, in different
times, of the Islamic Caliphate that stretched from
the borders of France (Spain was under the Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more"; ; Jesus called every believer a Muslim in Luke 6:40) Muslims '
rule) all the way to the borders of China.
And it is from the Northern Arabs
Jesus Christ will return!
Don't
believe me? See it for yourself from the Bible. He
won't return from Jerusalem. He will return from the
Northern Arabs, and Prophet Muhammad also made this
Prophecy:
www.answering-christianity.com/east.htm
Take care,
Osama Abdallah
@Osama: Oh nice.. youtube
links. You seem to be very well educated, how
historians work and what counts as a reliable
source. Wikipedia and Youtube - yes.. i think i will
base my research on those sources when i will write
my Master.
With just one sentence, you made your complete
argumentation worthless and disqualified yourself
for any further discussion.
You said: "Give me an exact year.".
This shows, that you have no idea, how history
works. We are speaking of developements here. Same
goes for the arabic language. It developed. I never
said it came into existence at a certain point in
time. It changed a lot and the language "arabic"
people speaking today is very different from what it
was 1000 years ago and even more different from what
people spoke 2000 years ago. Even today there are
big differences within arabic.
Your claim, that most of northern afrika spoke
arabic is just false. Egypt for example had a big
koptic population for a long time and they spoke
koptic (or is it coptic in english?). See how you
just dismiss such facts and just claim that they all
spoke arabic?
I will wathc all your links you provided, but as i
said - youtube is not a reliable source of any kind.
Give me scientific works = BOOKS! By historians and
linguists. I have access to a very good library from
the university in the city i live in. It will be
easy to get any book there. I myself study history
and protestant theology and have a lot of work to do
and learn - so i have not the spare time right now
to research on my own. When i got more time i will
surely do that. All i know from my history studies
is, that arabic had never that big influence in pre
islamic times, as you suggest. I think every
historian will be on my side with that.
Please educate yourself with real scientific works
and learn how to "study" as a historian. Watching
youtube videos is bad education and even wikipedia
is at very best a bad start for historical studies.
If i would quote from wikipedia in any work in my
history studies my professors would mark my work as
failed. Its the first thing people learn in the 1st
Semester at university - those things: wikipedia and
even worse: youtube .. those are NOT sources to
quote (except that work would be about wikipedia ;)
)
I think it is ok to quote wikipedia in a surface
level discussion like this one - but to support any
scientific claims, one has to use works that can
hold up to scientific standards.
Forgive me for not answering to your links now - i
just have to finish some work for university, but
will do have a look at the links in the next few
days.
For the future - please provide books by reputable
historians and linguists to support your claims. I
will not forget this and do some research after
christmas - i have a bit more time then and will
provide you with some books i will find about this
topic. Until then, i will be reading the blog but
propably have no time to answer. So see you after
Christmas -
and to all people here a happy 2nd Advent tomorrow
(do people say it that way in english?)
@Osama Abdallah
If you are going to answer our statements it would
help greatly if you were to read them. You claim
that we said that Greek was the native language in
Israel, and we did not. We said it was a TRADE
LANGUAGE! Not the primary language but a secondary
language for conversing with people who were not
local, like English in modernity and French not so
long ago. As for the "Northern Arabs", I was unaware
they lived in heaven or in the clouds.
Osama> perhaps you should
read this. Your position that israel was called "palestine"
at the time of Jesus is untenable.
http://www.letusreason.org/Biblexp63.htm
@Osama
You said, "And with your vast knowledge, when did
the people of the entire northern Arabian region
begin to speak Arabic? And when did they **** so
abruptly lost Greek or Aramaic or whatever language
you choose? Give me an exact year. Don't just give
me empty anti-Arabs and anti-Islam assertions."
Well, it could have something to do with the violent
Islamic invasion that where the men are killed, the
women enslaved for sex, and children sold off to
slavery. Or, maybe it was the constant subjugation
and humiliation non-believers are subject. Or, maybe
the Jizya, or some combination of these. I guess
people would figure out that it's either best to get
along or flee. But, the notion that this would have
happen in some "exact year" is so preposterous that
it's difficult to know how to respond to that. But,
I'll tell you what. You tell me the exact year the
British started speaking English and I'll tell you
the exact year the majority started speaking Arabic
in the Mediterranean.
You said, "And while you're at it, how come the
Assyrians in Iraq and Syria and Iran and Turkey
still speak Aramaic? And how come the Kurds in those
regions also still speak Kurdish? How come they
never abruptly loose their Aramaic and Kurdish?"
Probably for the same reason some Irish speak Irish
Gaelic, Scotts speak Scottish Gaelic, the Welsh
speak Welsh, and then there's Manx. Perhaps its the
same reason many people speak French in Louisiana
and many American Indian tribes speak English but
retain their traditional languages.
You said, "And who was the Canaanite woman in
Matthew-1521-28? Did Jesus say that it was the
GREEKS who were the Jews' dogs? Or was it the
Assyrians after all who were the Jews' dogs? Or was
it the Arab pagans who lived in Palestine, i.e., the
Palestinians? And what language did she speak? Your
Scriptures recorded this in Greek, but Greek is a
mere translation....Why couldn't that language be
Arabic according to you? It's not like we're talking
about England here! We're talking about Arabia, a
region that is most dominated by Arabic speaking
people, even those who are not Arabs do speak
Arabic." It's written in Greek because it was meant
the reach the widest possible audience in a language
understood by the greatest number of people. Why
couldn't it have been Arabic? Unlikely, as most
speakers in the region natively spoke Aramaic. The
Canaanite woman was probably a Samaritan, who were a
people that are mixed ethnicity with the original
Canaanites, Assyrians, or Babylonians (brought in to
displace the inhabitants during the Assyrian and/or
Babylonian conquest) and Jews that were left after
the the Assyrian conquest of the Northern Kingdom
and the Babylonian conquest of the Southern Kingdom.
It's not clear. You ask, "Why couldn't that language
be Arabic according to you? It's not like we're
talking about England here!" Well, she might have
spoken Arabic, but that would have been anomalous.
Then again, maybe she spoke Greek as either her
first or second language. Maybe Latin, or something
else. We don't know. We do know that Arabic was not
commonly spoken anywhere in the Mediterranean region
prior to the Islamic conquests.
Now, I've pretty much wasted as much time as I care
to waste. This is obviously not productive because
you are not amenable to reality. However, you never
answered my questions:
BTW, I'm curious if you also maintain that the
Temple Mount is not the site of the Second Jewish
Temple that was, by every credible historical
account, destroyed by the Romans in 70 AD. Because
I've heard a lot of Islamists try to deny the
historical Jewish presence in Jerusalem, the
historical validity of the site of the Temple Mount,
and even that Jerusalem was a city of Jews going
back to King David. Are you also one of these
people?
@Herakleios,
It is not YouTube or Wikipedia or any website
including this one that we're discussing through or
my website or any website. It's the sources and
resources. Like in History Channel when they make
documentary films on certain historical events, they
bring scholars and professors to put their inputs. You
can't just dismiss the arguments put forth by saying
oh yeah great, the history channel??? What a joke! The
YouTube videos that I gave you were by PhD
Professors with publications and research. Not just
mere individuals. And Wikipedia is not a joke, by
the way. They have tons of great references. Yes,
somethings they have errors, but the majority of the
articles that I've encountered had great references
and scanned images in them.
So none of them renders my argumentation as
worthless as you put it. Look at the merits, not the
websites.
@Denis Abraham,
The European colonizers wiped out more than 95% of
the Native Americans population. So languages
getting lost from them was due to the massive
extermination of the people and their civilization.
And either you didn't read everything, or you're
trying to twist and pervert the whole thing here.
The Northern Arabs were under the Romans and
Persians up until the Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more"; ; Jesus called every believer a Muslim in Luke 6:40) Muslims came and defeated
them.
SO GREEK SHOULD'VE BEEN ****** DEEPLY ROOTED AMONG THE PALESTINIANS.
YET, NOT ONLY WE DON'T SPEAK GREEK, BUT WE CAN'T EVEN READ IT!
We
don't even know the Greek Alphabets. Not even the
ARAB CHRISTIANS DO! They have to learn Greek through
special education.
@ SgtKOnyx,
As to Greek being a Trade language, sure I have no
problem with that. It was also the local
governments' and/or authorities' language. But this
doesn't mean that the general population spoke it.
Not even the Assyrians. Not the Arabs, nor the
Hebrews nor the Assyrians. And as I explained above,
Greek is virtually NOT SPOKEN anywhere on earth
outside Greece by any nation on this earth. This
clearly proves that Greek was never any other
nation's native language outside Greece.
Also visit:
Matthew 7:22-23: GOD sent Jesus to be Christianity's lying spirit
Take care,
Osama Abdallah
@osama
they also asked you to mention scholarly books by
non biased historians it think you left the one out.
PS Latin was also once a world language, just wanted
to mention that and not even Italy speaks Latin
anymore. So you example makes no sense at all
@Osama Abdallah
You wanna re-read your response to me? You might
find how you disprove your own point! To save time,
a trade language is a language spoken by many people
allowing them to speak to one another. This defeats
the claim that Greek was unspoken outside Greece.
Suffice to say thay any language spoken by many
people outside of the native population is simply
not what you think Greek is and it is how we think.
Yeah. I'm curious. Does Osama concede that there was a Jewish temple on the temple mount that was destroyed by the Romans in 70AD?
@Stvn,
In regards to the scholarly references, I already
gave videos of professors that did a lot of research
in the Arabic language history.
As to Latin, it didn't die out. It got evolved into
new languages and dialects that developed from it,
such as the Italian, French, Romanians and others (See also Isaiah 1:9-17: Yahweh called Israel Sodom, because it spreads evil and is unjust).
It is also still used today by the Catholic Church.
So it didn't go extinct. As two bloggers put it:
"It didn't disappear. It simply changed into French,
Spanish, Italian, Portuguese, Romanian and other
Latin languages, all of which might be termed modern
dialects of Latin.
If you compare the English of
Shakespeare's time to modern US English, it
will give you some idea of what can happen to a
noble language in the course of a few centuries."
"It didn't really die, it blended in to French,
Italian, Spanish, Romanian and Portuguese. And it is
still used in the Catholic Church and still studied
by many people. Latin declined because the Roman
empire fell and so it evolved. All languages will
eventually evolve. It won't happen to English
anytime soon but maybe in a very very very long time
it will fade out."
SOURCE:
https://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20100522140933AAxnpho
@ SgtKOnyx,
In regards to Greek being a trade language, brother
there could've been ample translators and
interpreters around that spoke multiple languages,
especially in the official markets. Or Greek simply
wasn't really that big. I find it quite odd that no
nation today outside Greece speaks Greek.
And
I find it more odd that no one even can read it, or
even its
basic alphabets.
So after all, Greek might've gotten inflated too
much by Christians simply because of their bias
towards it because it is the current New Testament's
language. So it could be no more than bias and
exaggeration.
In the Middle East, Aramaic never died. Kurdish
never died. Persian never died. Turkish never died.
It's not like Islam came to exterminate languages.
And like I said several times already above, PALESTINIANS
WERE UNDER THE ROMAN OCCUPATION. SO GREEK SHOULD'VE
BEEN DEEPLY ROOTED AMONG THEM. Not
just them, but all of the Northern Arabs except the
ones that were under the Persian occupation. But we
don't have any evidence that Greek was strong among
the Northern Arabs back then. Not only we don't
understand Greek, we can't even read it. And this
includes the Middle Eastern Christians as well;
Assyrians included.
And Assyrians too never spoke Greek! They never
did before Islam and they never did after Islam.
So Greek was exaggerated by Christians due to
religious bias, because you don't find it spoken
anywhere today except in Greece. Not even in Europe.
Take care,
Osama Abdallah
@ Andrew,
The land had always been called Philistine. Even in
the Bible before the Exodus it was called that. And
the people in the land had always been called
Philistines. This is why till this day we maintained
our national title,
Philistines (Palestinians).
Israel was a name that came after, and it was given
to the people. But this doesn't make the name of the
land as such. So it is no more than an alias for the
Jews. It is not the original name for the land.
Take care,
Osama Abdallah
@osama
"In regards to the scholarly references, I already
gave videos of professors that did a lot of research
in the Arabic language history."
so you have no sources from non arabic historians.
"Israel was a name that came after, and it was given
to the people."
what was given and what people and who give it ?
"Israel was a name that came
after, and it was given to the people."
what was given and what people and who give it ?
The people of Israel are called Beni
Israel. Beni
means people of or tribe of. According to Islam,
Allah Almighty permitted the Jews to live in
Palestine, but not to entirely own it. This is why
Jews had always existed in Palestine and in the
entire Middle East and in the entire Muslim world
before 1948. Allah Almighty told them to live in the
land after they fled the persecution and death of
the Pharaoh who refused to become a Muslim.
And by the way, there are no Jews. The original
Believers had always been called Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more"; ; Jesus called every believer a Muslim in Luke 6:40) Muslims . Not only
this is in Islam, but
Jewish historian and Rabbi Ben Abrahamson proved
this as well. And they are those
who HAADU (followed the Right Path). This is where
HUDA (GUIDANCE) comes from. Visit the following
links:
Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more"; ; Jesus called every believer a Muslim in Luke 6:40) Muslims ">
https://www.google.com/search?q=Ben+Abrahamson+Jews+were+Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more";
; Jesus called every believer a Muslim in Luke 6:40) Muslims
http://www.harunyahya.com/en/Short-videos---Dont-miss/29003/rabbi-ben-abrahamson-is-explaining
Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more"; ; Jesus called every believer a Muslim in Luke 6:40) Muslims +as+perfect+monotheists">
https://www.youtube.com/results?search_query=Rabbi+Ben+Abrahamson+is+explaining+how+Judaism+sees+devout+Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more";
; Jesus called every believer a Muslim in Luke 6:40) Muslims +as+perfect+monotheists
Also visit:
Matthew 7:22-23: GOD sent Jesus to be Christianity's lying spirit
Take care,
Osama Abdallah
Brother Osama,
You just mentioned the reason behind the presence of
Arab speaking population in Northern Africa and
Palestine. Migration and Conquest. Beibers of North
Africa never spoke Arabic. But migrants from yemen
etc, might have been present, but never as a
majority. Muslim invaders never walked into a land
with tributes to discuss terms of peace. They
destroyed churches or turned them into mosques(but
before that, they engraved in 'God doesn't beget is
not begotten'. People were massacred, their faith
was oppressed and were converted to the religion of
Arabs by force.
If you are a seeker of truth who doesn't take sides,
you can actually find out the attitude of invaders
to the people whom they conquered, from the early
Islamic sources: they were either asked to convert
or to pay Jizya, Religions were oppressed and were
fought against till the Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more"; ; Jesus called every believer a Muslim in Luke 6:40) Muslims became the
uppermost. If you're sincere to yourself, you would
admit that these things are found in Hadiths Al
Bukhari, Al Muslim and Quran.
This oppression and forced conversions along with
continued migrations created a countries with
massive Arabic majority that you see today.
Jerusalem was under seleucid and roman occupation
for years, they were in succession and Greek was one
of the languages that they spoke. I understand that
you agree with the presence of gteek language in
ancient palestine; considering the centuries they
were under this rule, kindly reconsider if the
influence was greater than what you believe to be,
besides now 20 centuries after the greek rule, and
nearly 14 centuries of arabic rule, I frankly doubt
if anyone would be speakng in greek in palestine at
present(I guess you agreed to this when you said:SO
GREEK SHOULD'VE BEEN DEEPLY ROOTED AMONG THE
PALESTINIANS. YET, NOT ONLY WE DON'T SPEAK GREEK,
BUT WE CAN'T EVEN READ IT).
I leave it up to you to decide the truth. But your
decisions can't change the facts of history. God
bless you. May he take away the blinders which
prevent you from seeing the truth. May he make his
light shine in our hearts to give us the light of
the knowledge of God's glory displayed in the face
of Christ.
God Bless,
Looking forward to seeing you as one among us
brethren,
Prayers and regards,
Dennis
@oasam
the like you provided has nothing to do with your
statements.
Can you pleas quote the koran and the hadiths to
support your statement?
"Allah Almighty permitted the Jews to live in
Palestine, but not to entirely own it."
@Stvn,
Here is the Noble Verse that you asked for:
[017:104]
And We said unto the Children
of Israel after him: Dwell
in the land; but when the promise of the
Hereafter cometh to pass We shall bring you as a
crowd gathered
out of various nations.
The Jews were permitted to live in Palestine, and
Allah Almighty Promised them that He will bring them
all from all over the world into Palestine when
their second punishment's time was to come. For more
on this, you can visit:
https://www.answering-christianity.com/nuclear_doom_prophecy.htm
@Denis,
What you said is not accurate at all! Not only that,
but as I mentioned, Greek wasn't known even among
the non-Muslims. And Arabic had always been a 1st
language in the Middle East long before Islam came.
And all other languages till this day are preserved
in the Middle East. Why only Greek had to go extinct
there?? It's because it was never a major language
from the beginning.
Take care,
Osama Abdallah
@Osama Abdallah
You just agreed Greek was a trade language, but now
it wasn't even spoken? Sounds fishy. As to why Greek
is no longer spoken in the areas surrounding Israel,
there have been several conquests; notably a Muslim
conquest of the area. That is certainly a reason the
language is no longer spoken there, as 1900 years
have passed since Jesus' time so one can expect some
language changes. To say that an area never spoke a
language in the distant past because they don't now
is a silly argument. Please remember the debate on
language is about whether Greek was spoken in Israel
in early A.D. years.
@ osama
if allah told the to live there and he will gather
them out of various crouds, then where did you get
this :" but not to entirely own it"
and also you did not tell me if allah speaks arabic
i read your article :
(a)- Lesser and lesser fossil fuel and natural
resources to support all of them!
(b)- Fossil fuel and natural resources are
depleting.
(c)- The world population will be in too many
billions, and will not be sustainable!
Major Shale Find Could Guarantee Israel’s Oil Supply
For Years
http://oilprice.com/Latest-Energy-News/World-News/Major-Shale-Find-Could-Guarantee-Israels-Oil-Supply-For-Years.html
"And by the way, there are no
Jews." Wow. That's real special. Then you should be
good with the Israelis controlling Israel, since
they're Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more"; ; Jesus called every believer a Muslim in Luke 6:40) Muslims .
"Here is the Noble Verse that you asked for..." You
can stop right there, because nobody you're trying
to convince accepts either the historical accuracy
or divine authority of the Q'uran. It's demonstrably
inaccurate and self-contradictory and there is no
reason to accept its authority.
Still you haven't answered my questions:
BTW, I'm curious if you also maintain that the
Temple Mount is not the site of the Second Jewish
Temple that was, by every credible historical
account, destroyed by the Romans in 70 AD. Because
I've heard a lot of Islamists try to deny the
historical Jewish presence in Jerusalem, the
historical validity of the site of the Temple Mount,
and even that Jerusalem was a city of Jews going
back to King David. Are you also one of these
people?
I guess that since you don't think there were or are
Jews, as ludicrous as that sounds, the answers are
no. I expect that if Charles Martel had not defeated
Abdul Rahman Al Ghafiqi at the Battle of Tours you'd
be talking about how France was always controlled by
Arabs going back eight millennia and that the French
were really always Muslim.
@SgtKOnyx,
Let me bring this discussion to and end with this
simple fact. When the Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more"; ; Jesus called every believer a Muslim in Luke 6:40) Muslims started their battles
with the Romans, the Palestinians and all of the
rest of the Northern Arabs were Arab speakers. And
when Omar, the 2nd Islamic Caliph, opened Palestine
by him personally going to Jerusalem, they were all
Arabic speakers, and people were embracing Islam
left and right with him. The multitudes were
entering Islam from all towns of Palestine, and they
were all Arabic speakers.
GREEK BEING OUR LANGUAGE THERE IS
SIMPLY A FALSE CLAIM.
It was
never our first language and never will be. "Our"
here includes ALL MIDDLE EASTERNS. Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more"; ; Jesus called every believer a Muslim in Luke 6:40) Muslims and
non-Muslims were never Greek speakers. Greek was
inflated and exaggerated by the Christians because
of religious bias. Even the countries that have
majority Christians DON'T SPEAK GREEK EITHER!
So much for Greek being a global language. I was
never as such. I say all of this with all respect
and love to the Greek people. This is not about
being against any Greek person.
Take care,
Osama Abdallah
Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more"; ; Jesus called every believer a Muslim in Luke 6:40) Muslims bless
Abraham everyday. Shedding light on
Genesis 12:1-3 "I will bless
those who bless you...".
Did you know that Elohim is Allah [1, *] [2] [3]. The "im" in Hebrew is a majestic plural for GOD Almighty. The root Word is "Eloh". And the more original Jews such as Yemenites and others say Alohim or Alah-im. And when you yourself pronounce it, you do naturally pronounce it with a double "l": Allah. Jews do call Him: Allah-im. Aramaic-speaking people also call GOD Almighty Allah. See the following videos for Biblical references and proofs. Also, pre-Islamic Biblical archeological findings have GOD Almighty as "Allah". So the Original Holy Name for GOD Almighty is not Eloh. It is Allah! Eloh is a Hebrew dialect, which not all Hebrew speakers use anyway. Allah had always been the Original and Universal GOD Almighty even before birth of Judaism, and the existence Hebrew. And Hebrew is a developed language from Phoenician. See the following links:
Daniel 3:26 in Aramaic says "Servants of Allah (GOD Most High GOD)". Sam Shamoun showed where portions of his OT is mixed between Hebrew and Aramaic writings. He also unintentionally proved that the Hebrew "ben" (son) is not the same as the Aramaic "bar" (wrongly gets translated as "son"). The correct and accurate translation is for "bar" is "the chosen pious one". Again, Allah Almighty has NO DIVINE SON. He considers the pious chosen ones as close BARS. The Aramaic and Arabic are the same in this one. See the ample verses and analysis in the video. Please also visit: The
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phoenician_alphabet
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biblical_Hebrew
Prophet Muhammad was foretold in the previous Scriptures.
John 11:50: It is expedient, whether through hook or by crook,
Did GOD ever appear in a human form to anyone?
Dhul Qarnayn's story. Sunrise and sunset. Also Why حمئة and not حاميةٍ. Dhil Qarnayn's journey is detailed with scientific and geographical maps that are more 1000 years old.
Allah Almighty
in the Glorious Quran said that earth is:
- Spherical: "egg-shaped" [1].
-
The Glorious Quran also speaks about
many earths
[5]
and not just earth.
In the end, Allah Almighty uses the Glorious Quran to "...Thus doth God leave to stray whom He pleaseth, and guide whom He pleaseth..." (74:31). The infidels misuse the Glorious Quran to find "scientific errors". The Glorious Quran is Allah Almighty's Perfect Divine Holy Book. It contains no scientific error. Visit the following example and the link to see 1000s of Numerical and Scientific Miracles: 1- The root for message and all of its derivatives, such as messenger and others occurs 513 times throughout the Glorious Quran. The Prophets' and Messengers', peace be upon them, actual names (Muhammad, Moses, Noah, Abraham, Lot etc....) were also all combined mentioned 513 times in the Glorious Quran. The detailed breakdown of all of this is thoroughly listed here. Coincidence? See 1,000s of examples! [1]. (zip file). Quran's Stunning Numerical & Scientific Miracles. Stunning Prophecies [2] [3] |
Also Visit:
What is the definition of Messiah in the Quran?
Jesus was created from the Word of GOD and filled with the Holy Spirit.
Jesus' Original Name: Prophet Jesus' original name was Eesa, as this is also his Islamic name. Even in Latin, it is Iesu, and in Greek it is Iesus. There is also a great deal of evidence that Jesus spoke and preached in Arabic. Not only that, but Greek wasn't even that popular in Palestine. Islam's claims are very strongly supported. See proofs below. In Hebrew, Asa (pronounced as EESA) means doctor or healer: "Asa is a given name in several parts of the world. In English, the usual pronunciation is /ˈeɪsə/ or /ˈeɪzə/......Asa: a Hebrew name meaning healer and/or physician (Ase)." (Source) Jesus' miracles were almost entirely medical ones, i.e., healing the sick. So it makes perfect sense that people used to call the Messiah, Eesa (ˈeɪsə), because of his miraculous healing powers. The Jews pronounce the name as Eesa (ˈeɪsə):
Jesus healed thousands in the NT.
So he was
definitely a miraculous Eesa
عيسى. The disciples arguing about the Sabbath and other Laws. Jesus promised them that the Holy Spirit will take over the disciples' mouths and that there will be no arguments, confusions or riddles. Yet, the NT is marred with open arguments, vilifications (calling each other cursed by GOD "anathema", satanic, false, wrong). Where is Jesus' promise?? Totally a false promise! - He promised that the Holy Spirit will take over the disciples' mouths, guide them in all ways, and that it will be the Holy Spirit speaking, not them. - They were barking at each other like rabid dogs calling each other cursed, false, liar, satanic, your gospel is from satan!
Where was the promised Holy Spirit in their conflicting scriptures?
Remember: Yet, Paul admits that he speaks through a lying spirit (Romans 3:7 But if through my lie God's truth abounds to his glory, why am I still being condemned as a sinner?), while Jesus promised all of the disciples that the Holy Spirit will take over the disciples' mouths, and that it will not be them speaking, but the Holy Spirit. Yet, Paul says he was lying. Matthew 7:22-23: GOD sent Jesus to be Christianity's lying spirit
Dismal Spiritual Failures: Let us examine the following: Romans 3:23 ESV No man is sinless and faultless. The NT even says Jesus himself sinned via coveting the sins of the world. Paul then barfs the following gem:
1 Corinthians 2:15
How??? How can any flesh and blood sinner not be subjected to judgment? The world has seen how disastrous your pedophilic and corrupt priests, ministers and churches are, from sex abuse on children, theft, prostitution and so much more. Ironically also, Paul and the disciples themselves dismally failed this standard when they turned into rabid dogs in harsh judgments on each other; calling each other cursed, false, liar, satanic, your gospel is from satan! [1] Their books didn't even exist for the first 200 to 300 years, says most Bibles theologians. They are very highly corrupted. Also, Trinity is a lie from Hell. Why was GOD Almighty charitable (χάριτι) and forgiving to Jesus in Luke 2:52? There is also conflict regarding misogyny: Paul proves the book of Revelation is a forgery; a book of misogyny:
Bibles' manuscripts prove that Jesus was only sent for a limited Generation, as he himself stated, and his final return from the east (Matthew 24:25-27) is a new Covenant from Arabia and Islam; also false christs and prophets during and after Jesus [1] [2] at the time. Which book were the people of the Book reciting (فسأل الذين يقرؤون الكتاب) during Prophet Muhammad's days according to the Glorious Quran 10:94?
Edward Dalcour says that Jesus would be insufficient if Paul was proven to be false:
Does Noble Verse 9:31 say that Allah and Jesus are two equal Lords? Also, thorough refutation to توحيد الربوبية (tawheed alruboobiyyah, or Oneness of Lordship between Jesus and Allah) concept by the polytheist trinitarian pagans.
***** Bibles' OT and NT: Spirits that GOD Almighty sends down including lying ones in the Bibles. Jesus in several passages was Commanded by GOD to become one to forge falseianity (christianity) because of the ample blasphemies of the Jews. Jesus replaced Satan: (Ezekiel 28:13-19). Notice the language of how Satan was: 1. "You were perfect from the day you were created". Jesus was also created from the Word of GOD. He was all of these and more before arrogance, pride, stubbornness and blasphemies caused Satan to fall from Grace. Jesus then became the substitute, i.e., the Perfect", "Glorious", "the chosen one", the "Anointed", "ruler over earth" and ruler over the "Holy Mount" chosen one of GOD Almighty. Jesus also said the direction of the Prayer towards Jerusalem will be no more (Psalm 138:2, John 4:21, Matthew 21:43, Isaiah 35, Isaiah 60, Genesis 25:12-13). It will be replaced with the Qibla (direction) to Mecca and the Holy Path to Mecca. Only Islam is the Divine Truth from Allah Almighty. Christianity is pagan. Even Christmas is an ancient Roman pagan holiday (video clip) according to the Christian theologians themselves:
See also 24 other Thrones and Messiahs besides Jesus (Revelations 4 & 5).
Eid Al-Adha: Ishmael or Isaac? GOD's peace be upon them both. Who was the son to be sacrificed? Bibles and Quran agree it was Ishmael.
Satan & Peter VS. Paul: 2 Corinthians 12:7-11. Paul literally put Peter and Satan in one team.
Sam Shamoun also exposes the ample holy group sex that occurs in his circle:
Paul ordered the execution (actual killing) of some sinners.Paul ate his vomit.
Bibles' manuscripts prove that Jesus was only sent for a limited Generation, as he himself stated, and his final return from the east (Matthew 24:25-27) is a new Covenant from Arabia and Islam; also false christs and prophets during and after Jesus [1] [2] at the time. (Sam Shamoun declares gambling is allowed in Christianity) Jesus amputated his unholy testicles to remain holy. If his body was holy, were his testicles cursed and unholy, especially that he commanded to maim your sinful body parts? They were not part of the Creator of the Universe's body?? Really??? Paul said maimed flesh gets sent to satan.
Why did Jesus amputate his own (NT calls them satanic flesh) testicles?
?
Did early Christians preach Prophet Muhammad in Rome? Did the early believers preach Prophet Muhammad in Corinth, Antioch, Rome and all other places? Prophet Jesus, peace be upon him, was the Jews' Messiah and final Prophet. In both the Glorious Quran and the Dead Sea Scrolls, Ahmed was prophesied to come. Ahmed in the Quran is Prophet Muhammad's prophetic name. Also, see below the Dead Sea Scroll image. The New Testament too predicts the coming of three:
1.
Elijah.
John
1:19-21
and
John
7:40-44.
Click on
the
images
to
expand:
Roman massacres:
1. Nero
(54-68)
Read all the
details with references
here. Also visit: How big was the first New Testament?
What we have
today from "gospels" and "New Testament" were
written
100 years to 300 years after Jesus'
departure from this earth. So, the current
writings that we have are not original writings.
Also, to appease the Roman Empire's 3-headed
pagan religion and practices, the pagan 3-headed
trinity was invented [1]
[2]
[3]
[4]
[5].
Many lies had been fabricated after the original
writings were all lost. The Jews and
Christians of Arabia, however, did have writings
that predicted the coming of Prophet Muhammad.
These were some of the original texts that
survived. The early believers were expecting an Arabian Prophet. The OT thoroughly talks about him and his new Covenant coming from Kedar in Arabia, and the NT talks about him coming after the Messiah: Why wasn't Prophet Muhammad preached by the early Christians in Jerusalem, Arabia, Africa and Europe? Early cities like Antioch, Corinth, Rome and others were never taught the coming of Prophet Muhammad. Doesn't this prove that Islam is false? But he was preached! From Why Jews settled in Arabia section:
Jesus also preached in Arabic: See the clear proofs in the following: ![]() - What is the definition of Messiah in the Quran? - Jesus was created from the Word of GOD and filled with the Holy Spirit, according to Islam. ![]() ![]()
Prophet "AHMAD" is found in the
Dead Sea Scrolls: |
The original believers were called
Muslims:
1- The believers' title was always Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more") 2- Moses' in-laws from Jethro and others were Salamays and Muslimays (video): Also this important video: Believers also during Adam, Noah and Abraham's times were also called Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more"; 3- Allah Almighty called Islam SELM or SILM [1] in the Glorious Quran. Because indeed, the religion before Allah Almighty is Islam, as He said, and before Prophet Muhammad it was called also Selm or silm. 4- Jesus also in the Bible called the believer's title Mushlem. The English translators falsely translate it as "perfect". Peace be upon all of the Prophets of Allah Almighty. Please visit:
www.answering-christianity.com/ac.htm#capsule
Allah is the GOD of the Bibles: [ Daniel 3:26 in Aramaic says "Servants of Allah (GOD Most High GOD)". Sam Shamoun showed where portions of his OT is mixed between Hebrew and Aramaic writings. He also unintentionally proved that the Hebrew "ben" (son) is not the same as the Aramaic "bar" (wrongly gets translated as "son"). The correct and accurate translation is for "bar" is "the chosen pious one". Again, Allah Almighty has NO DIVINE SON. He considers the pious chosen ones as close BARS. The Aramaic and Arabic are the same in this one. See the ample verses and analysis in the video. Please also visit: The
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phoenician_alphabet
|
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Quran's STUNNING Divine Miracles: [1] Allah Almighty also promised in several Divine Prophecies that He will show the Glorious Quran's Miracles to mankind. For example:
Coincidence? See 1,000s of examples [1].Quran's Stunning Numerical & Scientific Miracles.
"I cannot do anything on my own." (i.e., Jesus could not perform a single Miracle without GOD sending it down to him first!). I can not perform a single Miracle on my own!! I am totally POWERLESS without Allah Almighty! John 5:31 "if I (Jesus) bear witness of myself, then I would be a liar!" GOD didn't talk this way when He spoke to Moses. GOD's testimony alone is always sufficient! Jesus also bowed his face down to the ground, like we Muslims (Isaiah 56:5: Muslim is the future believers' name, and sons and daughters of GOD titles will be "no more"; |