Why is Zayd's name in the Glorious Quran? Why did he cause for Allah Almighty to send down a Divine Law for all Muslims because of this incident? Is Islam proven false because of it? Is Zayd really that important to have Allah Almighty send down Divine Revelations because of him? The Bible too has similar examples!

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The sections of this article are:

1- Allah Almighty's Divine Purpose.
2- Similar examples in the Bible.
3- Conclusion.

1- Allah Almighty's Divine Purpose:

Let us look at what Allah Almighty Said in the Glorious Quran:

"Behold! Thou didst say to one who had received the grace of God and thy favour: "Retain thou (in wedlock) thy wife, and fear God." But thou didst hide in thy heart that which God was about to make manifest: thou didst fear the people, but it is more fitting that thou shouldst fear God. Then when Zaid (or Zayd) had dissolved (his marriage) with her, with the necessary (formality), We joined her in marriage to thee: in order that (in future) there may be no difficulty to the Believers in (the matter of) marriage with the wives of their adopted sons, when the latter have dissolved with the necessary (formality) (their marriage) with them. And God's command must be fulfilled. (The Noble Quran, 33:37)"

"God has not made for any man two hearts in his (one) body: nor has He made your wives whom ye divorce by Zihar your mothers: nor has He made your adopted sons your sons. Such is (only) your (manner of) speech by your mouths. But God tells (you) the Truth, and He shows the (right) Way. (The Noble Quran, 33:4)"

The topic of "adopted sons are not actual sons in Islam" is thoroughly covered in the following two articles:

As to the questions in this article's title above, the simple answer to them is that it is all GOD Almighty's Divine Will and Wisdom to use individuals and specific scenarios and examples to send down Divine Revelations and Laws because of them. This doesn't prove that Islam is false. The argument is both superficial and emotional and not objective. And as we will see in the next main section, the Bible too has similar examples.

2- Similar examples in the Bible:

Please visit the following articles:

Also, from: https://www.answering-christianity.com/abrogation_in_bible.htm:

Can Daughters Inherit?

1- If sons are present, then daughters inherit nothing:

"1Zelophehad was from the Manasseh tribe, and he had five daughters, whose names were Mahlah, Noah, Hoglah, Milcah, and Tirzah. 2One day his daughters went to the sacred tent, where they met with Moses, Eleazar, and some other leaders of Israel, as well as a large crowd of Israelites. The young women said: 3You know that our father died in the desert. But it was for something he did wrong, not for joining with Korah in rebelling against the LORD. Our father left no sons 4to carry on his family name. But why should his name die out for that reason? Give us some land like the rest of his relatives in our clan, so our father's name can live on. 5Moses asked the LORD what should be done, 6and the LORD answered: 7Zelophehad's daughters are right. They should each be given part of the land their father would have received. 8Tell the Israelites that when a man dies without a son, his daughter will inherit his land. 9If he has no daughter, his brothers will inherit the land. 10But if he has no brothers, his father's brothers will inherit the land. 11And if his father has no brothers, the land must be given to his nearest relative in the clan. This is my law, and the Israelites must obey it." (CEV Bible, Numbers 27:1-11)

Some Important Points:

(a)- Notice here how a single scenario of a father and 5 daughters caused for a current Divine Law to be abrogated and for a new Divine Law to be created for all of the followers of Judaism.

(b)- It is clear that daughters could not inherit if there are sons. It is also clear that the father could not invalidate GOD Almighty's Command by invalidating His Law of Inheritance with a will. "This is my law, and the Israelites must obey it" makes this indisputably clear! No father is allowed to invalidate the Law of Inheritance.

(c)- We also see that the wife (the mother) inherits nothing.

(d)- We also see that GOD Almighty changed His previous Law to allow daughters to inherit if there are no sons. This is certainly an abrogation of a current and previous Law that they had.

3- Conclusion:

Again as I mentioned above, it is all GOD Almighty's Divine Will and Wisdom to use individuals and specific scenarios and examples to send down Divine Revelations and Laws because of them. This doesn't prove that Islam is false. The argument is both superficial and emotional and not objective. And for those Bible followers who use such example to falsify Islam, then they must now also declare their book, which is altered and corrupt anyway even according to it's own theologians and commentators, to be false.

Ask me any question section.

Why did Allah Almighty prevent the wives of Prophet Muhammad from marrying any man after him?

Was Islam's Muta (temporary marriage) Law immoral? What does the Bible say about it?

Prophet Muhammad's (peace be upon him) section.

Islam and the Noble Quran - Questions and Answers.

Was Prophet Muhammad's marriage with Zaynab bint Jahsh really a sin? The ex-wife of his "adopted son".

Zaynab Bint Jahsh: The Fact behind the Fiction.

Why is Zayd's (or Zaid) name in the Glorious Quran? Why did he cause for Allah Almighty to send down a Divine Law for all Muslims because of this incident? Is Islam proven false because of it? Is Zayd really that important to have Allah Almighty send down Divine Revelations because of him? The Bible too has similar examples! This article also covers the Prophet's marriage with Zaynab bint Jahsh.

Did Prophet Muhammad really marry his daughter in law?

Was Prophet Muhammad really a womanizer?

Is Muta (temporary marriage) allowed in Islam?

X-Rated Pornography in the Bible.